Showing posts with label CURRENT GK. Show all posts
Showing posts with label CURRENT GK. Show all posts

Sunday, December 5, 2010

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1 In which one of the following animals is respiration done by skin?

(1) Flying fish

(2) Sea horse

(3) Frog

(4) Chameleon

Ans. (3)

2. ‘Foot and Mouth Disease” is found in:

(1) Cats and bogs

(2) Cattle

(3) Poultry

(4) Humans

Ans. (2)

3. Who of the following recognized that large quantity of energy is released as a result of the fusion of hydrogen nuclei to form deuterium?

(1) Enrico Fermi

(2) Glenn Seaborg

(3) Hans Bethe

(4) Werner Heisenberg

Ans. (3)

4. Brass is an alloy of which of the following pairs of metals?

(1) Aluminum and Copper

(2) Chromium and Tin

(3) Copper and Tin

(4) Copper and Zinc

Ans. (4)

5. Which one of the following bacteria helps in improving the soil fertility?

(1) Clostridium

(2) Rhizobium

(3) Salmonella

(4) Staphylococcus

Ans. (2)

6. Consider the following statements:

1. In a person suffering from Myopia, the image of a distant object is formed behind the retina.

2. Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(1) l only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both land 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (2)

7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List -II

(Theory/Law/Principle) (Scientist)

A. Electromagnetism 1.Darwin

B. Principles of Inheritance 2. Faraday

C. Laws of Inertia 3.Mendel

D. Theory of Natura1 Selection 4. Newton

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 1 4 3 2

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 1 3 4 2

(4) 2 4 3 1

Ans. (2)

8. Which one of the following is a vitamin?

(1) Citric acid

(2) Folic acid

(3) Glutamic acid

(4) Linoleic acid

Ans. (2)

9. Which one of the following varieties of coal is considered the best quality?

(1) Anthracite

(2) Bituminous

(3) Lignite

(4) Peat

Ans. (1)

10. Who of the following discovered the laws of planetary orbits?

(1) Galileo Galilee

(2) Nicholas Copernicus

(3) Johannes Kepler

(4) Isaac Newton

Ans. (3)

11. Consider the following statements:

1. The main constituent of LPG is Butane.

2. The main constituent of Biogas is Methane.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both l and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (3)

12. Through which one among the following materials does sound travel slowest?

(l) Air

(2) Glass

(3) Water

(4) Wood

Ans. (1)

13. Which one of the following is used in preparing match sticks?

(1) Chile saltpetre

(2) Indian saltpetre

(3) Red phosphorus

(4) Sodium bicarbonate

Ans. (3)

14. Consider the following pairs:

1. Rewalsar lake : Himachal Pradesh

2. Nakki lake : Madhya Pradesh

3 Renuka lake : Uttarakhand

Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

(1) l only

(2) 1 and 2 only

(3) 2 and 3only

(4) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (1)

15. Which National Highway connects Chennai and Vishakhapatnam?

(1) NH 4

(2) NH 5

(3) NH 6

(4) NH 8

Ans. (2)

16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Scientist) (Well known as)

A. Birbal Sahni 1. Mathematician

B. Ramanujan Srinivasa 2. Paleobotanist

C. Sir C.V. Raman 3. Physicist-Botanist

D. Sir J. C. Bose 4. Physicist

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 3 1 4 2

(2) 2 1 4 3

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 2 4 1 3

Ans. (2)

17. The Phenomenon of ‘total internal reflection” is observed in which one of the following?

(1) Glowing tube light

(2) Light passing through lens

(3) Sparkling diamond

(4) Twinkling star

Ans. (3)

18. From which year did Saka era begin?

(1) 78 B.C.

(2) 78 A.D.

(3) l78 A.D.

(4) 278 A.D.

Ans. (2)

19. Among the following elements, which one is not present in pure sugar?

(1) Carbon

(2) Hydrogen

(3) Nitrogen

(4) Oxygen

Ans. (3)

20. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the

List-I List-II

(Organization) (Headquarters)

A. UNESCO 1. Geneva

B. IMF 2. Paris

C. ILO 3. Vienna

D. UNIDO 4. Washington. D.C.

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 4 1 3

(3) 3 1 4 2

(4) 3 4 1 2

Ans. (2)

21. By convention, who of the following is the Chairman of Press Council of India?

(1) An eminent journalist of India

(2) A senior Civil Services Officer

(3) A retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India.

(4) The Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting

Ans. (3)

22. Consider the following statements:

1. No money bill can be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendation of the President of India.

2. The Prime Minister appoints Finance Commission for distribution of taxes between the Union and the States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both l and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (1)

23. Five Year Plans in India are finally approved by the:

(1) Union Cabinet

(2) President on the advice of Prime Minister

(3) National Development Council

(4) Planning Commission

Ans. (3)

24. In India, the power to increase the number Of judges in the Supreme Court lies with:

(1) The President of India

(2) The Chief Justice of India

(3) The Union Ministry of Law

(4 The Parliament of India

Ans. (4)

25. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is mentioned in the:

(1) Preamble to the Constitution

(2) Directive Pincip1es of State Policy

(3) Fundamental Duties

(4) Ninth Schedule

Ans. (2)

26. Consider the, following statements:

1. The Prune Minister of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission.

2. The Union Finance Minister Is the ex-officio Chairman of the Finance Commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) l only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both l and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (1)

27. Consider the following statements:

1. When Vice-President acts as President of India. he ceases to perform the function of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

2. The President of India can promulgate Ordinances at any time except where both Houses of Parliament are in session.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 Only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (3)

28. The maximum number of members that the Legislative Assembly of a State in India can have is:

(1) 400

(2) 450

(3) 500

(4) 550

Ans. (3)

29. Bank rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India provides loans to:

(1) Public sector Understandings

(2) Scheduled Commercial Banks

(3) Private Cooperate Sector

(4) Non-Banking Financial Institutions

Ans. (2)

30. Who is empowered by the constitution of India to dissolve the Lok Sabha before expiry of its term?

(1) The Prime Minister of India on the advice of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(2) The President of India

(3) The President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister of India

(4) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Ans. (3)

31. In which year was ‘Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana’ launched?

(1) 2004

(2) 2005

(3) 2006

(4) 2007

Ans. (2)

32. The “Uruguay Round” negotiations resulted in the establishment of:

(1) NATO

(2) OECD

(3) WHO

(4) WTO

Ans. (4)

33. With reference to the Union Government, which one of the following does undertake the country -wide Economic Census?

(1) Department of Expenditure

(2) The National Sample Survey Organization.

(3) Planning Commission

(4) The Central Statistical Organization

Ans. (2)

34. Geeta Chandran is well known as a /an:

(1) Bharatnatyam dancer

(2) Classical Carnatic vocalist

(3) Film director

(4) Exponent of Violin

Ans. (1)

35. With reference to Indian Freedom Struggle consider the following statements:

1. P.C. Ray founded the Bengal Chemical Works.

2. V. O. Chidambaram Pillai set up the Steam Navigation Company

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (3)

36. Who of the following was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha?

(1) G. S. Dhillon

(2) G. V. Mavalankar

(3) Hukam Singh

(4) K. S. Hegde

Ans. (2)

37. Who of the following Is associated with Tashkent agreement?

(1) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

(2) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(3) Indira Gandhi

(4) Morarji Desai

Ans. (2)

38. Simon Commission was appointed to look into the working of the:

(1) Indian Councils Act, 1892

(2) Government of India Act, 1909

(3) Government of India Act, 1919

(4) Government of India Act, 1935

Ans. (3)

39 Which one of the following is a primate?

(1) Bear

(2) Lions

(3) Pangolin

(4) Otter

Ans. (2)

40. Consider the following:

1. Potato

2. Radish

3.Turnip

4.Yam

In which of the above are roots used as vegetables?

(1) 1, 2 and 3

(2) 2, 3 and 4

(3) 2 and 4 only

(4) l and 3 only

Ans. (2)

41. Which one of the following metals is found in ‘plaster of paris’?

(1) Calcium

(2) Magnesium

(3) Potassium

(4) Sodium.

Ans. (1)

42. Which one of the following is an enzyme?

(1) Glucagon

(2) insulin

(3) Somatotropin

(4) Trypsin

Ans. (4)

43. International Date line passes through which of ‘the following?

(1) Atlantic ocean

(2) Black sea

(3) Mediterranean sea

(4) Pacific ocean’

Ans. (4)

44. The deficiency of which one of the following causes a disease called Pellagra?

(1) Ascorbic acid

(2) Folic acid

(3) Nicotinic acid

(4) Pantothenic acid

Ans. (4)

45, Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Disease) (Type of causative organism)

A. Filaria 1. Bacteria

B. Influenza 2. Fungus

C. Ringworm 3. Nematode

D. Typhoid 4. Virus

Codes:

(a) b) (c) (d)

(1) 1 2 4 3

(2) 1 4 2 3

(3) 3 2 4 1

(4) 3 4 2 1

Ans. (4)

46. From the evolutionary point of view, which one of the following is closer to man?

(1) Dolphin

(2) Flying fish

(3) Shark

(4) Tortoise

Ans. (1)

47. Who of the following is known as Lokahitavadi?

(1) G. H. Deshmukh

(2) G. K. Gokhale

(3) J. G. Phule

(4) M. G. Ranade

Ans. (1)

48. With reference to Indian freedom struggle which one among the following events occurred earliest?

(1) Gandhi-Irwin Pact

(2) Lucknow Pact

(3) Cripps Mission Proposals

(4) August offer

Ans. (2)

49. During India’s freedom struggle. which one of the following led to the first ‘All India Hartal’?

(1) Protest against Rowlatt Act

(2) Protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

(3) Trial of Mahatma Gandhi

(4) Arrival of Simon Commission

Ans. (4)

50 . The Non-Cooperation movement was called off as a result of agitation at which one of the following places?

(1) Calcutta

(2) Champaran

(3) Chauri Chaura

(4) Meerut

Ans. (3)

PRACTICE GENERAL STUDIES QUESTIONS

1. Consider the following pairs:

1. Ilbert Bill : Lord Hastings

2. August Offer : Lord Ripon

Which of the above pairs is are correctly matched?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (4)

2. Who of the following founded the “East India Association”?

(1) C.R. Das

(2) Dadabhai Naoroji

(3) Devendra Nath Tagore

(4) V. D. Savarkar

Ans. (2)

3. Who of the following started the newspaper “Bande Mataram”?

(1) Barindra Kumai Ghose

(2) Bipin Chandra Pal

(3) Devendra Nath Tagore

(4) Surendra Nath Banerjee

Ans. (2)

4. Consider the following famous historical persons:

1. Ashvaghosha

2. Bhavabhuti

3. Nagarjuna

4. Naga sena

Who of the above are Buddhist scholars?

(1) 1 and 3 only

(2) 2, 3 and 4

(3) 1, 3, and 4

(4) 1, 2 and 4

Ans. (3)

5. Which one among the following types of forests exhibits highest bio-diversity?

(1) Dry deciduous forest

(2) Tropical rain forest

(3) Moist deciduous forest

(4) Mangrove forest

Ans. (2)

6. Among the following rivers, which one is the longest?

(1) Godavari

(2) Krishna

(3) Mahanadi

(4) Narmada

Ans. (1)

7. Where is the headquarters of Asian Development Bank?

(1) Jakarta

(2) Manila

(3) Singapore

(4) Bangkok

Ans. (2)

8. The National River Conservation Directorate is under:

(1) Ministry of Agriculture

(2) Ministry of Environment and Forest

(3) Ministry of Earth Sciences

(4) Ministry of Water Resources

Ans. (2)

9. Consider the following statements:

1. Mikhail Gorbachev was the first President of Russian Federation

2 Dmitry MedvedevVs Vs the fifth President of Russian Federation

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (2)

10. Who of the. following is the author of the book “My Country, My Life”

(1) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

(2) Atal Behari Vajpayee

(3) L. K. Advani

(4) Shashi Tharoor

Ans. (3)

11. Which one of the following beaches is visited by Olive Ridley turtles annually for mass nesting?

(1) Chandipur

(2) Gahirmatha

(3) Gopalpur

(4) Paradip

Ans. (2)

12. The administration of the English East India Company in India came to an end In:

(1) 1857

(2) 1858

(3) 1862

(4) 1892

Ans. (2)

13. Who of the following is not a sports person?

(1) C. B. Bhave.

(2) P. T. Raghunath

(3) Samaresh Jung

(4) Suma Shirur

Ans. (1)

14. The famous name Vikram Pandit is associated with:

(1) Cairn Energy

(2) Citigroup

(3) PepsiCo

(4) Vodafone

Ans. (2)

15. What is H5N1 recent times?

(1) A new multi-purpose helicopter of Indian Army

(2) A virus causing Bird Flu

(3) The nearest galaxy to our own Milky way

(4) A genetically modified rice plant

Ans. (2)

16. The Jarawa tribe lives in which one of the following States/Union Territories?

(1) Arunachal Pradesh

(2) Assam

(3) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(4) Lakshadweep Islands

Ans. (3)

17. A very young sportsperson of India, Virdhawal Khade is a:

(1) Boxer

(2) Chess player

(3) Golfer

(4) Swimmer

Ans. (4)

18. Which one among the following is a water soluble vitamin?

(1) Vitamin A

(2) Vitamin C

(3) Vitamin E

(4) Vitamin K

Ans. (2)

19. Which one of the following is a pigment?

(1) Albumin

(2) Elastin

(3) Keratin

(4) Melanin

Ans. (4)

20. On which one of the following dates did Jawaharlal Nehru unfurl the tri-color national flag on the banks of the Ravi as the clock struck the midnight?

(1) 31st December, 1929

(2) 26th January, 1930

(3) 31st December, 1931

(4) 26th January, 1933

Ans. (1)

21. Tipu Sultan died fighting the English. forces under:

(1) Lord Cornwallis

(2) Lord Wellesley

(3) Lord Dalhousie

(4) Lord Hastings

Ans. (2)

22. The battle of Wandiwash was fought between:

(1) Marathas and Portuguese

(2) The English and the French

(3) The English. and Portuguese

(4) Marathas and the English

Ans. (2)

23. The author of “Nildarpan” was:

(1) Dinabandhu Mitra

(2) Sivnath Sastri

(3) Devendra Nath Tagore

(4) Harishchandra Mukherjee

Ans. (1)

24. The first weekly Bengali newspaper ‘Samachar Darpan’ was published by:

(1) Harish Chandra Mukherjee

(2) Dinabandhu Mitra

(3) Marshman

(4) Vidyasagar

Ans. (3)

25. Who among the following Peshswas was popularly known as Nana-Saheb?

(1) Balaji Vishwanath

(2) Baji Rao

(3) Balaji Baji Rao

(4) Madhav Rao I

Ans. (3)

26. Who was responsible for the introduction of the Vernacular Press Act of 1878?

(1) Lord Mayo

(2) Lord Lytton

(3) Lord Ripon

(4) Lord Curzon

Ans. (2)

27. Alauddin Khalji captured the Delhi throne after securing fabulous wealth from:

(1) Chanderi

(2) Gujarat

(3) Devagiri

(4) Madurai

Ans. (3)

28. Who of the following was a contemporary of Gautama Buddha?

(1) Bhadrabahu

(2) Chandragupta Maurya

(3) Parsvanatha

(4) Varadhamana Mahavira

Ans. (4)

30. When Babur Invaded India who was the ruler of Vijayanagara empire in South India?

(1) Saluva Narasimha

(2) Devaraya II

(3) Krishna Deva Raya

(4) Sadasiva Raya

Ans. (3)

31. Who of the following was a contemporary of Chengiz Khan?

(1) Mahmud of Ghazni

(2) Iltutmish

(3) Alauddin Khalji

(4) Mohammad bin-Tughlaq

Ans. (2)

32. Dara Shikoh finally lost the war of succession to Aurangzeb in the battle of:

(1) Dharmat

(2) Samugarh

(3) Deorai

(4) Khanua

Ans. (2)

33. Who is the author of the book Glimpses of World History?

(1) Abdul Kalam Azad

(2) Jawaharlal Nehru

(3) S. Gopalan

(4) S. Radhakrishnan

Ans. (2)

34. Match List-I with. List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Reservoir) (State)

A. Stanley Reservoir 1. Karnataka

B. Koyna Reservoir 2. Maharashtra

C. Jalaput Reservoir 3. Orissa

D. Bhadra Reservoir 4. Tamil Nadu

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 1 2 3 4

(2) 1 3 2 4

(3) 4 3 2 1

(4) 4 2 3 1

Ans. (4)

35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the

lists :

List-I List-II

(Irrigation/Power Projects) (Location)

A. Malprabha 1. Andhra Pradesh

B. Kakrapara 2. Karnataka

C. Srisailam 3.Gujarat

D. Bhima 4. Maharashtra

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 4 1 3 2

(2) 2 1 3 4

(3) 4 3 1 2

(4) 2 3 1 4

Ans. (4)

36. Which one among the following countries is the largest producer of Bauxite?

(1) Australia

(2) Brazil

(3) West Indies

(4) India

Ans. (1)

37. The busy port of Rotterdam is situated in:

(1) The Netherlands

(2) Belgium

(3) Denmark

(4) Germany

Ans. (1)

38. Which one of the following descriptions denotes the phenomenon of El Nino?

(1) A violent rotating column of air extending from a thunderstorm to the ground

(2) The deflection of the ocean currents in the northern and southern hemisphere due to the rotation of Earth

(3) The Anomalous widespread warming of the sea-surface of the tropical and central Pacific ocean

(4) The revolving tropical Storms of the Caribbean and Gulf of Mexico

Ans. (3)

39. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the list:

List-I List-II

(Country) (Capital City)

A. Argentina 1. Buenos Aires

B. Brazil 2 .Caracas

C. Peru 3.Lima

D. Venezuela 4. Sao Paulo

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 1 3 4 2

(2) 1 4 3 2

(3) 2 3 4 1

(4) 2 4 3 1

Ans. (2)

40. Match List-I with List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Sea) (Country)

A. Adriatic Sea 1. Bulgaria

B. Baltic Sea 2. Italy

C. North Sea 3. Poland

D. Black Sea 4. United Kingdom

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 4 3 1

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 4 2 3

Ans. (2)

41. Among the following States, which one has the highest amount of Nickel Ore resources?

(1) Chhattisgarh

(2) Jharkhand

(3) Karnataka

(4) Orissa

Ans. (4)

42. What Is the name .of the highest summit of Niligri hills?

(1) Coonoor-betta

(2) Anaimudi

(3) Doda-betta

(4) Vellangiri

Ans. (3)

43. Recently which one of the following lost the status of a planet?

(1) Mercury

(2) Neptune

(3) Pluto

(4) Uranus

Ans. (3)

44. Which one of the following countries was hit by the cyclone Nargis recently causing a great destruction and loss of life?

(1) Bangladesh

(2) Myanmar

(3) Sri Lanka

(4) Pakistan

Ans. (2)

45. Which one among the following is nearest to Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research?

(1) Chidambaram

(2) Mahabalipuram

(3) Madurai

(4) Thanjavur

Ans. (2)

46. Which of the following arc connected by over 1700 km long BTC oil pipe line?

(1) Arabian sea Mediterranean sea

(2) Aral sea and Caspian sea

(3) Black sea and Mediterranean Sea

(4) Caspian sea and Mediterranean sea

Ans. (4)

47. Where is the old and over 20 km-long ‘Pamban Railway Bridge’ which attracts tourists from all over the country?

(1) Nilgiris

(2) Krishna Delta

(3) Palk strait

(4) Malabar coast

Ans. (3)

48. Consider the following statements:

1. The monsoon climate is found in Northern Australia.

2. The China type climate is found in Argentina.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(1) l only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (1)

49. At which one of the following places is the monkey called Lion-tailed macaque naturally found?

(1) Shivaliks

(2) Pachmarhi

(3) Nallainalal hills

(4) Nilgiris

Ans. (3)

50.Among the following places, which one receives comparatively lowest average monsoon rainfall from June to September?

(1) Eastern Uttar Pradesh

(2) Southern West Bengalore

(3) Weatern Ghats

(4) Gujarat

Ans. (4)

Central Police forces Central Police Forces Exam Questions

1. Which of the following fish is bread exclusively in the cold regions of India?
1 Catla
2. Tinca
3. Bhekti
4. Trout
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 1 and 4
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 3 and 4
Ans. (3)

2. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?
1. The Chairman of Finance Commission
2. The Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission
3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory
Choose the answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2
(3) l and 3
(4) 1 and 3
Ans. (1)

3. Two persons start walking at a steady pace of 3km/hour from a road intersection along two roads that make an angle of 60° with ach other. What will be the (shortest) distance separating them at the end of 20 minutes?
(1)3km
(2)2km
(3) 1.5km
(4) 1 km
Ans. (4)

4. Who among the following became the Prime Minister India without being earlier the Chief Minister of a State?
1. Morarji Desai
2. Charan Singh
3. V. P. Singh
4. Chandrasekhar
5. P. V. Narasimha Rao
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1, 2 and 4
(2) 2, 3 and 5
(3) 2 only
(4) 4 only
Ans. (4)

5. In the sequence 462, 420, 380, X, 306, X stands for:
(1) 352
(2) 342
(3) 332
(4) 322
Ans. (2)

6. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through:
(1) glass
(2) vacuum
(3) water
4) air
Ans. (4)

7. Which one of the following is a membrane that protects the developing embryo from desiccation?
(1) Amnion
(2) Allantois
(3) Chorion
(4) Yolk sac
Ans. (1)

8. E.T.A is terrorist organization in:
(1) Cyprus
(2) Sri Lanka
(3) Spain
(4) South Africa
Ans. (4)

9, Which one of the following is the most important reason for the establishment of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thumba?
(1) The sea is near to the place In, the East, West and South directions
(2) It is a place near to a city in India, which is nearest to the: Geographic Equator
(3) It is situated on the Geomagnetic Equator
(4) Outer Space near Thumba exhibits queer atmospheric phenomena
Ans. (3)

10. Match List-I with List-II and the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Nuclear) List-II (States Power Station)
A. Kota 1. U. P
B. Tarapur 2. Gujarat
C. Kakrapara 3. Maharashtra
D. Narora 4. Rajasthan
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (2)

Directions: (Q. 11-20): The following 10 (Ten) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements. carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of R
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

11. Assertion (A): Upanis1adas were compiled towards the end of the Vedic periods
Reason (R): The Upanishadic thought centers, round the idea of soul (Atman), no sacrifice.
Ans. (1)

12. Assertion (A): Chandragupta instigated revolt against Greek Satraps.
Reason (R): Chandragupta had visited the camp to Alexander.
Ans. (2)

13 Assertion (A) : A lock of Einstein’s hair if scientists could locate it and extract its DNA, could help in producing another Einstein, by cloning.
Reason (R): The DNA extracted from the cell of an embryo at an early stage of development, can be transferred to individual eggs which in turn can be implanted into the uterus of a surrogate mother to give birth to an identical offspring?
Ans. (3)

14. Assertion (A): In ancient India, the states of women, Idealized in literature and art, underwent steady deterioration through the ages.
Reason (R): Though monogamy. was the ideal, polygamy was often the practice among the higher classes of society.
Ans. (2)

15. Assertion (A): The U.S.A. reemerged as India’s single largest import source in the early nineties.
Reason (R): With swift political developments in the erstwhile Soviet Union, India
gradua1ly began to rely on the U.S.A. for its defense requirements.
Ans. (3)

16. Assertion. (A): The monsoonal rainfall decreases as one goes towards the west and north-west in, the Ganga plain.
Reason (R): The moisture- bearing monsoonal winds go higher up as one moves up in the Ganga plain.
Ans. (3)

17. Assertion (A): The sign of Krishnadeva Raya ‘s the period of Vijayanagar greatest success when Its army was always victorious
Reason (R): Krishnadeva Raya’s army and navy were trained by Portuguese Generals appointed by him.
Ans. (3)

18. Assertion (A): General Dyer fired at Jallianwala Bagh crowd without any warning and till the ammunition was exhausted.
Reason (R): This shooting was not only to boost the morale of the army, but also to strike terror in Punjab.
Ans. (1)

19. Assertion (A): In India, the political parties which formed the governments represented the majority of seats secured In the elections of the House of the People at the Centre and the Legislative Assemblies in the States but not the majority of votes.
Reason (R) : The elections based on the majr1ty vote system decide the result on the basis of relative majority of votes secured.
Ans. (1)

20. Assertion (A): Nizamuddin Auliya approved the conduct of a Sufi in releasing his woman slave and allowing her to return to her Hindu parent.
Reason (R): This was strictly in. accordance with the Muslim law.
Ans. (3)

21. Which of the following statements about the Dunkel draft is/are correct?
1. It is mandatory for the Government of India to accept all its proposals in all the sectors
2. In the field of agriculture, the main proposal is to cut agricultural subsidies
3. In the field of textiles, it reiterates the operation of the multifibre agreement
4. The proposals have already been accepted by the Parliament
Select the correct answer form the codes given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) l and 2
(3) 1, 2 and 4
(4) 3 and 4
Ans. (2)

22. Consider the following statements:
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline.
2. Gujarat has he highest number of Airports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 Only
(2) only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)

23. The average elevation of Tibetan Plateau above sea level is
(1) 2 km
(2) 3 cm
(3) 4 km
(4) 5 km
Ans. (4)

24. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as ‘municipal relations’?
(1) Center’s control of the State in the legislative sphere
(2) Center’s control of the State In financial matters
(3) Center’s control of the State in the administrative sector
(4) Center’s control of the State in the Planning process
Ans. (2)

25. The main constituents of pearl are:
(1) Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate
(2) aragonite and conchiolin
(3) ammonium sulphate and sodium carbonate
(4) calcium oxide and ammonium chloride
Ans. (1)

26. The acceleration due to gravity of a castrophic earthquake will be
(1) > 550 cm/sec2
(2) > 750 cm/sec2
(3) > 950 cm/sec2
(4) > 980 cm/sec2
Ans. (3)

27. A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of the:
(1) lack of antigen in his blood
(2) lack of antibodies in his blood
(3) lack of both antigens and antibodies in his blood
(4) presence of antibodies in his blood
Ans. (2)

28. Which one of the following polymers is wide1y used for making bullet proof material?
(1) Polyvinyl chloride
(2) Polyamides
(3) Polyethylene
(4) Polycarbonates
Ans. (2)

29. Consider the following statements:
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline.
2. Gujarat has he highest number of Airports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 Only
(2) only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)

30. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Dev Samaj’?
(1) Vallabhbhai Patel
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji
(3) Sivanaryan Agnihotri
(4) Ramakrishna Paramhansa
Ans. (3)

31. The name of the periodical among the following published by Mahatma Gandhi during his stay in South Africa:
(1) Navjiwan
(2) India Gazette
(3) Afrikaner
(4) Indian Opinion
Ans. (4)

32. In which of the following did Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel play a leading role?
(1) Bijolia Movement
(2) Dandi March
(3) Textile Mill Workers Strike at Ahmedabad
(4) Bardoli Satyagraha
Ans. (4)

33. What is common among Madam Bhikaji Cama, M. Barkatulla, V.V.S. Layer and M.N. Roy?
(1) All of them were leading members of the International Communist movement
(2) M. Barkatulla was the Prime Minister and the rest were ministers in the Provisional Government of Press India established by a group of revolutionaries at Kabul
(3) All of them were among the prominent revolutionaries outside India operating in different countries during the Freedom Movement
(4) All of them were accused in the case relating to the throwing of a bomb on Lord Hardinge
Ans. (3)

34 Which one of the following important trade centers of ancient India was on the trade route connecting Kalyana with Vengi?
(1) Tagara
(2) Sripura
(3) Tripuri
(4) Tamralipti
Ans. (1)

35. Which one of the following regions of Asia is experiencing the highest annual growth rate of population?
(1) South Asia
(2) South-East Asia
(3) Central Asia
(4) West Asia
Ans. (1)

36. An air bubble in water will act like a:
(1) Convex mirror
(2) Convex lens
(3) Concave mirror
(4) Concave lens
Ans. (4)

37. The great Asian river Mekong does not run through:
(1) China
(2) Malaysia
(3) Cambodia
(4) Laos
Ans. (2)

38. The square root of the cube of this number is the cube of its square root. It is not 1 and it is less than 6.What is it?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
Ans. (3)

39. Sound waves travel at 300 m/s. Sound produced at a point is heard by a person after 5 seconds while the same sound is heard by another person after 6 seconds. What could be the maximum and minimum distances between the two persons?
(1) 1.8 km, 0.15 km
(2) 2.2 km, 0.20km
(3) 2.8 km. 0.25 km
(4) 3.3 km, 0.3 km
Ans. (4)

40. The Mansabdari System introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the system followed in:
(1) Afghanistan
(2) Turkey
(3) Mongolia
(4) Persia
Ans. (3)

41. The first to start a joint stock to trade with India were the:
(1) Portuguese
(2) Dutch
(3) French
(4) Danish
Ans. (2)

42. Which one of the following upheavals took place in Bengal immediately after the Revolt of 1857?
(1) Sanyasi Rebellion
(2) Santhal Rebellion
(3) Indigo Disturbances
(4) Pabna Disturbances
Ans. (3)

43. The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are:
(1) Buddhist
(2) Buddhist and Jain
(3) Hindu and Jam
(4) Hindu, Buddhist and Jain
Ans. (4)

44. Which one of the following usages was a post-Vedic development?
(1) Dharma-Artha-Kama -Moksha
(2) Brahmana – Kshatriya –Vaishya – Shudra
(3) Brahmacharya- Grihastashrama -Vanaprastha- Sanyasa
(4) Indra- Surya –Rudra –Marut
Ans. (2)

45. Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States?
(1) Stamp Duties
(2) Passenger and goods tax
(3) Estate Duty
(4) Taxes on Newspaper
Ans. (1)

46. l0 % of 2O + 20 % of 10 =?
(1) 10 % of 20
(2) 20 % of 10
(3) 1 % of 200
(4) 2 % of 200
Ans. (4)

47. Which of the following are correctly matched?

A
Establishment of Manufacturing
B
Year C
Place
1 Setting up of the first cotton mill
2. Manufacture of the first machine made paper
3. Setting up of the first cement factory 1854
1870
1904 Bombay
Near Calcutta Madras

Choose the correct answer from the Codes given below:
(1) 1 and 2
(2) l and 3
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1and 3
Ans. (3)

48. Which one of the following statements regarding ‘Exit Poll’ is correct?
(1) Exit Poll is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding in whose favour they had exercised their franchise
(2) ‘Exit Poll’ and Opinion Poll are one and the same
(3) Exit Poll is a device through which result of voting can be most exactly predicted
(4) ‘Exit Poll’ is an administrative device made recently by the Chief Election Commission to prevent impersonation
Ans. (3)

49. The Uniting for Peace Resolution adopted by the U.N. has:
(1) enhanced the powers of the General Assembly in a comprehensive way
(2) reduced the powers of the General Assembly made
(3) made no difference to the powers of the General Assembly.
(4) empowered the General Assembly to act in specific situations in matters of peace and security
Ans. (4)

50. Which one of the following soil types of India is restored infertile by the presence of
excess iron?
(1) Desert sand
(2) Alluvial
(3) Podzolic
(4) Lateritic
Ans. (4)

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1 Where is the Headquarters of NATO located?

(1) Amsterdam

(2) Brussels

(3) Berlin

(4) Paris

Ans. (2)

2. At which one of the following places is the Liquid Propulsion Systems Center located?

(1) Chandipur

(2) Mahenragiri

(3) Sriharikota

(4) Wheeler Island

Ans. (2)

3. Which one of the following Committees/Authorities is associated with the recommendation of the repeal of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act?

(1) Justice Jeeven Reedy Committee

(2) Rajinder Saccar Committee

(3) R. S. Pathak inquiry Authority

(4) U. C. Banerjee Committee

Ans. (1)

4. Among the following eminent citizens, who is a renowned chemist?

(1) S. N. Subba Rao

(2) C. N. R. Rao

(3) Rani Abhay Singh

(4) Rajinder Singh

Ans. (2)

5. In the recently held 37th IFFI in Goa the film director of which country won the Best Film Award and Golden Peacock?

(1) China

(2) Japan

(3) Iran

(4) Russia

Ans. (1)

6. in which country does Basque separatist group operate?

(1) Ireland

(2) Italy

(3) Spain

(4) Turkey

Ans. (3)

7. Recently, China made a very large dam to tame which one of the following rivers?

(1) Huang Ho

(2) Mekong

(3) Yarlung Zangpo

(4) Yangtze

Ans. (4)

8. Who of the following brought the Sikh Kingdom of Punjab under direct British rule by an official proclamation?

(1) Lord Hastings

(2) Lord Cornwallis

(3) Lord Minto

(4) Lord Dalhousie

Ans. (4)

9. Who of the following wrote the book Precepts of Jesus?

(1) Raja Rammohan Roy

(2) Devendra Nath Tagore

(3) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar

(4) Keshab Chandra Sen

Ans. (1)

10. Who among the following was sent by Lord Hardinge to South Africa to plead the cause of Indians led by the young Gandhi?

(1) B. G. Tilak

(2) G. K. Gokhale

(3) M. G. Ranade.

(4) Moti Lal Nehru

Ans. (2)

11. Consider the following pairs:

a. Hyderabad : Musi

b. Lucknow : Gomati

c. Surat : Narmada

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(1) a only

(2) a and b only

(3) b and c only

(4) a b and c

Ans. (4)

12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List –II

(Place of Religious interest) (State)

A. Sabrima1a 1. Andhra Pradesh

B. Shravanabelagola 2. Karnataka

C. Srirangam 3. Kerala

D. Srisailam 4. Tamil Nadu

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 1 4 2

(2) 4 2 3 1

(3) 3 2 4 1

(4) 4 1 3 2

Ans. (3)

13. Which one of the following Sequences of rivers is correct from North to South?

(1) Bhima – Manjra -Thungabhadra

(2) Manjra – Bhima -Thungabhadra

(3) Bhima –Thungabhadra -Manjra

(4) Manjra –Thungabhadra -Bhima

Ans. (2)

14. Which one of the following mineral ores is the Shimoga district well-known for?

(1) Bauxite

(2) Manganese

(3) Mica

(4) Zinc

Ans. (2)

15. The Syr Darya and Amu Darya fall into which one of the following?

(1) Caspian Sea

(2) Black Sea

(3) Aral Sea

(4) Lake Baikal

Ans. (3)

16. Which one of the following is not a current of North Atlantic Ocean?

(1) Falkland Currents

(2) Canary Current

(3) Labrador Current

(4) Gulf Stream

Ans. (1)

17. Which one of the following Sates does not share boundary with Jharkhand?

(1) Chhattisgarh

(2) Madhya Pradesh

(3) Orissa

(4) Uttar Pradesh

Ans. (4)

18. Through which States does Vamsadhara river flow?

(1) Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh only

(2) Chhattisgarh and Orissa only

(3) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa only

(4) Andhra Pradesh .Chhattisgarh and Orissa,

Ans. (3)

19. Whose entry into India resulted in the introduction of maize crop in India?

(1) Dutch

(2) English

(3) French.

(4) Portuguese

Ans. (4)

20. The efforts of whom of the following led to the ‘Age of Consent Act. 1891’?

(1) Rabindranath Tagore

(2) M. G. Ranade

(3) Surendra Nath Banerjee

(4) Malbari

Ans. (4)

21. What was the name of the party formed by Subhash Chandra Bose after leaving Indian National Congress?

(1) Congress Socialist Party

(2) Forward Bloc

(3) Indian National Conference

(4) Swaraj Party

Ans. (2)

22. Among the following who was a prominent leader of the Khilafat Movement?

(1) Jawaharlal Nehru

(2) Mahatma Gandhi

(3) Rajendra Prasad

(4) Vallabhbhai Patel

Ans. (2)

23. Who was the architect of the ‘Drain Theory’ and the author of the book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India?

(l) Dadabhai Naoroji

(2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(3) Abut Kalam Azad

(4) Ramesh Chandra Dutt

Ans. (1)

24. The Civil Disobedience Movement started with which of the following?

(1) No-tax campaign in Bardoli district

(2) Demonstration of Akali Sikhas at Nabha

(3) Demonstration against the Simon Commission

(4) Dandi March

Ans. (4)

25. With which one of the following was Jayprakash Narayan associated?

(1) All lndia a Kisan Sabha

(2) Communist Party of India

(3) Congress Socialist Party

(4) Indian Independence League

Ans. (3)

26. Among the follow1ng which one is a major component of biogas (Gobargas)?

(1) Acetylene

(2) Ethane

(3) Ethylene

(4) Methane

Ans. (4)

27. Which one of the following is used in fire extinguishers?

(1) Baking soda

(2) Quick lime

(3) Slaked lime

(4) Washing soda

Ans. (1)

28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List -I List-II

(Musician) (Instrument)

A. Amjad Ali Khan 1. Flute

B. Lalgudi G. Jayaraman 2. Sarod

C. Pannalal Ghose 3. Sitar

D. Vilayat Khan 4. Violin

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 1 4 2

(2) 2 4 1 3

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 2 1 4 3

Ans. (2)

29. With which one of the following countries, does India have the longest border?

(1) Bangladesh

(2) China

(3) Pakistan

(4) Myanmar

Ans. (2)

30. Area wise, which one among the fo1lowing is the largest?

(1) Chandigarh

(2) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

(3) Delhi

(4) Puducherry

Ans. (1)

31. For which one of the following States, is Guwahati High Court not its High Court?

(1) Arunachal Pradesh

(2) Meghalaya

(3) Mizoram

(4) Sikkim

Ans. (4)

32. In which of the following is the percentage of haemog1obin maximum?

(1) Infants

(2) Children of around 10 years of age

(3) Men

(4) Women

Ans. (3)

33. Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

(1) Vitamin A

(2) Vitamin C

(3) Vitamin D

(4) Vitamin K

Ans. (2)

34. How many liters of blood pass through kidneys of a normal person in a day

(1) 1.7 liters

(2) 17 liters

(3) 170 liters

(4) 1700 liters

Ans. (4)

35. Which of the following has/have velocity equal to that of light?

(1) X-ray

(2) y-ray

(3) Ultraviolet ray

(4) All of the above

Ans. (4)

36. If f 1, f 2 and f 3 are the frequencies of light in diamond, glass

and water respectively, then which one of the following is correct?

(1) f 1 > f 2 > f 3

(2) f 3 > f2 > f 1

(3) f 1 = f 2 > f 3

(4) f 1 = f 2 = f 3

Ans. (2)

37. Why is one end of a sewing needle made pointed?

(1) To increase the force

(2) To increase the pressure

(3) To decrease the weight

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

38. Consider the following statements:

a. Sodium bicarbonate present In the digestive tablets reacts with gastric juices to reduce acidity in the stomach.

b. Sodium bicarbonate is commonly known as cooking soda.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (3)

39. In which of the following is magnesium present?

(1) Ascorbic acid

(2) Vitamin B12

(3) Chlorophyll

(4) Haemoglobin

Ans. (3)

40. Consider the following statements:

a. Sand is a mixture

b. Diamond is an element

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (2)

41. Which one of the following is not a member of ASEAN?

(1) Brunei Darussalam

(2) East Timor

(3) Laos

(4) Myanmar

Ans. (2)

42. The pandemic Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) which has been in news frequently is caused by which of the following?

(1) Bacteria

(2) Fungi

(3) Protozoa

(4) Viruses

Ans. (4)

43. What does Antrix Corporation ltd deal with, that came into the news recently?

(1) Brokering arms deals between India and supplier countries/companies

(2) Mediating between India and Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG) countries

(3) Developing genetically modified crop plants

(4) Marketing ISRO’s launch vehicles to fly satellites from abroad

Ans. (4)

44. Consider the following statements:

a. colour blindness is found in men and not in women.

b. Night blindness is found in old and aged, and not in young.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (1)

45. Darfur, which is frequently new, is located in which of the following regions?

(1) Eastern side of Sudan

(2) Western side of Sudan

(3) North-Western side of Ethiopia

(4) Northern side of Kenya

Ans. (2)

46 Which one of the fo1lowing locations does not have a steel plant of SAIL?

(l) Bhilai

(2) Bokaro

(3) Rourkela

(4) Vishakhapatnam

Ans. (4)

47. Which one of the following pharmaceutical companies filed writ petitions against Government of India and others, to plead against the rejection of its patent application by a patent office in Chennai?

(1) Aventis

(2) Cipla

(3) Glaxo- Smith Kline

(4) Novartis AG

Ans. (4)

48. Recently, the National Assembly of which one of the following nations had given the President of that nation the authority to pass laws by decree for a period of 18 months?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (4)

49. Which one of the following took over the Anglo-Dutch steel company Corus-?

(l) Jindal Steel

(2) Mittal- Arcelor

(3) Neelanchal lspat Nigam Ltd

(4) Tata Steel

Ans. (4)

50. Consider the following statements:

a. ONGC Videsh Limited (OVL) has 40% equity in the Sakhalin-I Project of Russia

b. The Sakhalin -1 Project is operated by OVL

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (4)

51. Consider the following statements:

a. The Commonwealth is an association of 45 countries.

b. The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meetings (CHOGM) are held every two years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (2)

52. The independent nation Montenegro originated out of the dissolution of which one of the following?

(1) Bulgaria

(2) Czechoslovakia

(3) Romania

(4) Yugoslavia

Ans. (4)

53. Which one of the following countries produces Phalcon airborne warning and control systems (AWACS)?

(1) India

(2) Israel

(3) Russia

(4) USA

Ans. (2)

54. Which one of the following is in correct chronological order?

(1) Surat Split- Partition of Bengal Lucknow Pact-Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy

(2) Partition of Bengal – Surat Split – Lucknow Pact- Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy

(3) Surat Split – Partition of Bengal – Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy— Lucknow Pact

(4) Partition of Bengal- Surat- Split-Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy – Lucknow Pact

Ans. (2)

55. Into how many categories are the Fundamental Rights classified in the Constitution of India?

(1) Five

(2) Six

(3) Seven

(4) Eight

Ans. (2)

56. When a Court of Law gives an order directing a public authority to perform its duties if its non performance causes injury to the petitioner, it is known by which one of the following writs?

(1) Certiorari

(2) Habeas Corpus

(3) Mandamus

(4) Quo Warranto

Ans. (3)

57. Consider the following statements in respect of be Union Budget of India:

a. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays an Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.

b. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of lndia

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (2)

58. Consider the following statements:

a. The Constitution of India lays down ten Fundamental Duties for every citizen of India.

b. The Constitution of India provides for direct enforcement of the Fundamental Duties enshrined in Article 51A.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (1)

59. Who appoints the District Judges?

(1) Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned State

(2) Governor of the concerned State

(3) Public Service Commission of the concerned State

(4) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

Ans. (2)

60. Recently which one of the following countries built a more than 30 km long bridge which spans sea?

(1) China

(2) South Korea

(3) Japan

(4) Malaysia

Ans. (1)

61. Recently in which one of the following countries did a leak of water with radioactive material at a very large nuclear plant occur?

(1) Australia

(2) Japan

(3) Russia

(4) USA

Ans. (2)

62. Between which of the following is the Guru Govind Singh Refinery Project at Bhatinda a joint venture?

(1) IPCL and ONGC

(2) HPCL and Mittal Energy

(3) IPCL and Mittal Energy

(4) HPCL and Cain Energy

Ans. (2)

63. The Hyde Act which has been very frequently in news is related to which of the following?

(1) An agreement between India and Israel for supply of defense equipment

(2) An agreement between India and Canada for supply of uranium,

(3) An agreement between India and the USA for civil nuclear cooperation

(4) An agreement between India and China for flood control

Ans. (3)

64. How is international personality Zadie Smith well kown as?

(1) Environmentalist

(2) Human Rights activist

(3) Litterateur

(4) Musician

Ans. (3)

65. Among the following States, which one was given full statehood last?

(1) Goa

(2) Sikkim

(3) Haryana

(4) Nagaland

Ans. (2)

66. In the SAARC Summit held in New Delhi in April, 2007, three observer countries sent their Foreign Ministers to the Summit. Which one of the following was not an observer country?

(1) China

(2) Japan

(3) Myanmar

(4) South Korea

Ans. (3)

67. What is the approximate percentage of generated electricity contributed by NTPC to the total electricity generated during 2006-07 in the country?

(1) 45%

(2) 40%

(3) 30%

(4) 20%

Ans. (3)

68. Which of the following enzymes is produced by the salivary glands?

(1) Pepsin

(2) Ptyalin

(3) Rennin

(4) Trypsin

Ans. (2)

69 Which one of the following crops increases soil fertility by adding nitrates to soil?

(1) Black-gram

(2) Cotton

(3) Sugarcane

(4) Tomato

Ans. (1)

70. Consider the following:

a. Flying squirrel

b. Porcupine

c. Barking deer

Which of the above is/are naturally found in India?

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only

(3) c only

(4) a, b and c

Ans. (3)

71. The deficiency of which one of the following vitamins causes increased loss of calcium ion in urine?

(1) Vitamin A

(2) Vitamin B5

(3) Vitamin C

(4) Vitamin D

Ans. (4)

72. What is BT cotton that is frequently in the news?

(1) A hybrid of Egyptian and American varieties of cotton

(2) A hybrid of cultivated and wild varieties of cotton

(3) A genetically modified pestresistent cotton

(4) A drought-resistant variety of cotton

Ans. (3)

73. Consider the following vitamins:

a. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

b. Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)

c. Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamine)

Milk is a source for which of the above?

(1) a only

(2) b and c only

(3) a and c only

(4) a, b and c

Ans. (4)

74. Which of the following in human body manufacture the antibodies that are responsible for immunity?

(1) Muscle cells

(2) Nerve cells

(3) Red blood cells

(4) White blood cells

Ans. (4)

75. Among the following, who was the Speaker in two Lok Sabhas?

(1) Rabi Ray

(2) Shivraj Patil

(3) P.A. Sangma

(4) G. M. C. Ba1yogi

Ans. (4)

76. Who among the following received the International Cosmos Prize, 2006?

(1) Mala R. Chinoy

(2) M.S. Narasimhan

(3) Raman Sukumar

(4) Kota Harinarayana

Ans. (3)

77. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I List-II

(Famous Company) (Country of Origin)

A. Rosneft 1. Malaysia

B. Petronas 2. Russia

C. Volkswagen 3. Germany

D. Wal-Mart 4. USA

A B C D

(1) 4 1 3 2

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 4 3 1 2

(4) 2 1 3 4

Ans. (4)

78. Who of the following helped Humayun in recovering his kingdom’?

(1) Bahadur Shah of Gujarat

(2) Shah Hussain Arghun of Sind

(3) Shah Tahmasp of Persia

(4) Maldeo of Bikaner

Ans. (3)

79. Who was the Governor-General Of the’ East India Company’ when the Revolt of 1857 took place?

(1) Lord Bentinck

(2) Lord Hastings

(3) Lord Dalhousie

(4) Lord canning

Ans. (4)

80. During, the Indian freedom struggle, what was the purpose of the Simon Commission?

(1) To inquire into events related to Jallianwala Bagli Massacre

(2) To look into the working of the Government of India Act, 19l9

(3) To suggest strategies to promote Western education of India

(4) To design a constitution for India within the framework of ‘Dominion Status’.

Ans. (2)

81. Consider the following statements:

1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.

2. Quick lime is used in the manufacture of glass.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (3)

82. Consider the following statements:

1. Ian Wilmut produced the first portable computer.

2. Adam Osborne created the first cloned sheep.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (4)

83. Which one of the following is the first multipurpose river valley project of independent India?

(1) Bhakra Nangal Project

(2) Damodar Valley Corporation

(3) Hirakud Multipurpose Project

(4) Thungabhadra Multipurpose Project

Ans. (2)

84. Match list-I with list- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Fertilizer Industry) (State)

A. Aluva 1. Assam

B. Namrup 2. Jharkhand

C. Nangal 3. Kerala

D. Sindri 4. Punjab

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 4 1 3

(3) 3 1 4 2

(4) 3 4 1 2

Ans. (3)

85.The famous Petronas Twin Towers are located in:

(1) China

(2) Japan

(3) Malaysia

(4) Indonesia

Ans. (3)

86. Match list-I with list -II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List-I List-II

(Famous Place) (State)

A. Bhimbhetka 1. Andhra Pradesh

B. Bhiterkanika 2. Karnataka

C. Pattadakal 3. Madhya Pradesh

D. Srikalahasti 4. Orissa

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 1 2 4 3

(2) 3 2 4 1

(3) 1 4 2 3

(4) 3 4 2 1

Ans. (4)

87. Bokaro Steel Limited was established with the assistance of:

(1) Germany

(2) Soviet Union

(3) UK

(4) USA

Ans. (2)

88. Which one of the following is not a member of Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC):

(1) Algeria

(2) Brazil

(3) Ecuador

(4) Nigeria

Ans. (2)

89. Consider the following cities:

(1) Bhatinda

(2) Jamnagar

(3) Mangalore

Which of the above has/have oil refineries?

(1) 1 and 2 only

(2) 3 only

(3) 2 and 3 only

(4) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (3)

90. Match List-I with List -II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Person) (Well known as)

(A) K. V. Kamath 1. Banker

(B) G. M. Rao 2. Environmentalist

(C) Rajendra Pachauri 3. Industrialist

Code:

(a) (b) (c)

(1) 1 2 3

(2) 1 3 2

(3) 2 3 1

(4) 3 1 2

Ans. (2)

91. Consider the following statements:

1. The Shivaliks have tropical moist deciduous flora.

2. The Bundelkhand plateau has thorn and scrub forest type of vegetation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (2)

92. Which one among the following rivers is the longest:

(1) Amazon

(2) Amur

(3) Congo

(4) Volga

Ans. (1)

93.Consider the following statements:

1. Rainfall in the doldrums is of convectional nature.

2. Convectional rainfall is highly localized and is associated with minimum cloudiness

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2.

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (3)

94. Which of the following is true in the case of Ellen Johnson Sir leaf recently in the news?

(1) First woman who completed non-stop flight around the globe

(2) An African female human rights activist In the Darfur region

(3) Female scientist who deciphered the complete human genome sequence

(4) Africa’s first elected female Head of State

Ans. (4)

95. Consider the following statements:

a. Nitrogen gas can put out fire but is still not used in the extinguishers.

b. Critical temperature of nitrogen is very high.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (1)

96. What was the name of the organization founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in London to Influence the British public, opinion in India’s favour?

(1) Indian Association

(2) Indian League

(3) British Indian Association

(4) East India Association

Ans. (4)

97. Rakesh Sharma India’s first cosmonaut, was launched from which one of the following places?

(1) Baikanour

(2) Cape Canaveral

(3) Kourou

(4) Tashkent

Ans. (1)

98. Recently which one of the following countries launched a rocket to put a Sun observation satellite in an orbit?

(1) Australia

(2) Canada

(3) Italy

(4) Japan

Ans. (4)

99. Among the following, who was not a co-founder of NAM?

(1) Gamal Abdel Nasser

(2) Josip Broz Tito

(3) Jawaharlal Nehru

(4) Yasser Arafat

Ans. (4)

100. In recent times, which one of the following countries was hit by Typhoon Saomi, the strongest storm to hit that country in the last 50 years?

(1) Australia

(2) China

(3) Malaysia

(4) Thailand

Ans. (2)

PRACTICE GENERAL ABILITY QUESTIONS

1. Which one of the following countries has its Military base in the Indian Ocean island Diego Garcia?

(1) France

(2) Russia

(3) United Kingdom

(4) United States of America

Ans. (4)

2. Who of the following is the author of the book Confessions of a Swadeshi Reformer: My Years as Finance Minister?

(1) P. Chidambaram

(2) Manmohan Singh

(3) Jaswant Singh

(4) Yashwant Sinha

Ans. (4)

3. Consider thee following statements:

a. BrahMos missile can fly at velocities beyond Mach 2.

b. BrahMos missile has a maximum range of l000 km

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(l) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (1)

4. For outstanding lifetime achievement in which one of the following areas is the Abel Prize, an international prize awarded?

(1) Ecology and Environment

(2) Medical Science

(3) Mathematics

(4) Biotechnology and Genetic Engineering

Ans. (3)

5. Who of the following led the opposition of the Indian Universities Act of 1904?

(1) Aurobindo Ghosh and Lala Lajpat Rai

(2) Surendra Nath Banerjee and Pherozeshah Mehta

(3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Dadabhai Naoroji

(4) W. C Banerjee and R. C. Dutt

Ans. (2)

6. With which of the following broad areas is the concept of ‘Six Sigma’ associated?

(1) Quality control in manufacturing

(2) Path tracing of satellites

(3) Pollution control of automobiles

(4) Printing technology

Ans. (1)

7. Consider the following statements:

a. Organizations of Village Panchayats is included in the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India

b. Freedom as the payments of taxes for promotion of any particular religion as included in the Directive Principles of State Policy

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (4)

8. Oliver Kahn is one the great modern sportsmen. He is in which one of the following games?

(1) Hockey

(2) Football

(3) Golf

(4) Basketball

Ans. (2)

9. Venue of 16th Asian Games, 2010 is?

(1) Kuala Lumpur

(2) Guangzhou

(3) Hanoi

(4) Ho Chi Minh City

Ans. (2)

10. Tasmania is a part of which one of the following countries?

(1) Malaysia

(2) Indonesia

(3) Australia

(4) Thailand

Ans. (3)

11. Consider the following statements:

a. A person is eligible for election as the President of India only if he/she has completed 40 years of age.

b. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college whose composition is similar to the electoral college of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (4)

12. Which one of the following cities of the USA is most Southwards located?

(1) Dallas

(2) San Francisco

(3) Miami

(4) Los Angeles

Ans. (3)

13. The Headquarters of which of the following is located in Paris?

(l) NATO

(2) OECD

(3) European Commission

(4) UNIDO

Ans. (2)

14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Town) (Nearest National Park/Wildlife Sanctuary)

A. Alwar 1. Ghatigaon

B. Bhopal 2. Pench

C. Gwalior 3. Sariska

D. Nagpur 4. Vanvihar

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 4 1 3

(2) 2 1 4 3

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 3 1 4 2

Ans. (3)

15. From North to South, which one of the following sequences of hills is correct?

(1) Dafla Hills-Mik Ir Hills-Jaintia Hills

(2) Dafla Hills-Jaintia Hills Mik Ir Hills

(3) Mik Ir Hills Dafla Hills- Jaintia Hills

(4) Mik Ir Hills-Jaintia Hills-Dafla Hills

Ans. (3)

16.

What does the shaded portion in the map given above represent?

(1) Coniferous forests

(2) Alpine forests

(3) High altitude vegetations.

(4) Temperate grasslands

Ans. (4)

17. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of petroleum in South America?

(1) Brazil

(2) Venezuela

(3) Colombia

(4) Argentina

Ans. (2)

18.

In the map given above four shaded areas are marked as a, b, c and d. Which of these are tea growing areas?

(1) a, b and c only

(2) a, c and d only

(3) b and d only

(4) a, b, c and d

Ans. (2)

19. With reference to Lord Cornwall’s ‘Permanent Settlement’, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) It created a limited proprietary right of Zarmindars on the land.

(2) It had taken away the Magisterial powers of Zamindars.

(3) It had left no police work for Zamindars.

(4) It recognized the rights of tenants due to which landlords could never oust them.

Ans. (4)

20. Which of the following Mughal Emperors built the Jama Masjid of Delhi?

(1) Humayun

(2) Akbar

(2) Jahangir

(4) Shahjehan

Ans. (4)

21. Nadir Shah attacked Delhi during the reign of:

(1) Ahmed Shah

(2) Farrukh Siyar

(3) Jahandar Shah.

(4) Muhammad Shah

Ans. (4)

22. Where is the National industrial Security Academy of the CISF located?

(1) Hyderabad

(2) Mount Abu

(3) Tekanpur

(4) Gwaldam

Ans. (1)

23. The Constituent Assemble was set up under the

(1) Cripps Mission

(2) Caninet Mission Plan

(3) Wavell Plan

(4) Nehru Report

Ans. (2)

24. Which vitamin is essential for coagulation of blood ?

(1) A

(2) D

(3) E

(4) K

Ans. (4)

25. CAPART is engaged primarily with which one of the following in India?

(1) e-governance

(2) Share market

(3) Rural development

(4) Pollution control

Ans. (3)

26. The elements essentially present in Sun are

(1) Oxygen and Nitrogen.

(2) Carbon and Oxygen

(3) Hydrogen and Helium

(4) Hydrogen and Oxygen

Ans. (3)

27. Which-one of the following pairs is not corect1y matched?

(1) Ghadar Movement : Sohan Singh Bhakna

(2) Kisan movement : Lala Lajpat Rai

(3) Hindustan Republican Association : .Sachindranath Sanyal

(4) Hindu Dharma Sanrakshini Sabha : Madan Mohan Malaviya

Ans. (2)

28. Consider the following statements:

1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru hoisted the National flag on 31st December, 1929 at Lahore

2. Independence Day was observed on 26th January, 1930 all over India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both l and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (3)

29. In humans, which one of the following causes tetanus?

(1) Bacteria

(2) Fungus

(3) Protozoan

(4) Virus

Ans. (1)

30. Consider the following statements:

1. Sundarbans delta is a very large mangrove forest.

2. Sundarbans delta lies at the mouth of the Ganges.

3. Sundarbans National Park has been recognized as a World Heritage Site

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) l and 2 only

(2) 2 and 3 only

(3) l and 3 only

(4) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (4)

31. Why does one feel muscular fatigue after strenuous physical work?

(1) Accumulation of urea in the muscles

(2) Accumulation of lactic acid in the-muscles

(3) Loss of glucose from muscles

(4) Lack of Oxygen in muscles

Ans. (2)

32. Which one of the following organs produces urea in the human body?

(1) Kidney

(2) Liver

(3) Spleen

(4) Urinary bladder

Ans. (1)

33. In most computer systems, how many binary bits are there in a byte?

(1) 8

(2) 16

(3) 32

(4) 64

Ans. (1)

34. Match List -I (Mineral) with List -II (Main Location of Reserves) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Mineral) (Main Location of Reserves)

A. Tungsten 1. Andhra Pradesh

B. Nickel 2. Kerala

C. Zircon 3. Rajasthan

D. Mica 4. Orissa

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 4 2 1

(2) 2 1 3 4

(3) 3 1 2 4

(4) 2 4 3 1

Ans. (1)

35. Match List –l (Book) with List-II (Writer) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Book) (Writer)

A. The Good Earth 1. Khushwant Singh

B. Untouchable 2. Kamala Markandaya

C. Nectar in a Sieve 3. Pearl S. Buck

D. Train to Pakistan 4. Mulk Raj Anand and

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 4 3 1

(2) 3 1 2 4

(3) 2 1 3 4

(4) 3 4 2 1

Ans. (4)

36. How is Norman Borlaug well known ?

(1) Agricultural scientist who won the Nobel Prize for Peace

(2) Made substantial contribution to research in cancer

(3) Famous humorist and poet

(4) A famous journalist

Ans. (1)

37. Match List- I (Famous Person) with List-II (Area) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Famous Person) (Area)

A. E .C. G. Sudarshan 1. Economics

B. P. K. Sethi 2. Long-distance swimming

C. Mihar Sen 3. Orthopedic surgery

D. I. G. Patel 4. Physics

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 4 2 3 1

(2) 1 3 2 4

(3) 4 3 2 1

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (3)

38. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the population density in the given States/Union Territories/NCR Delhi?

(1) Delhi > Chandigarh > Uttar Pradesh > West Bengal

(2) Chandigarh > Delhi > West Bengal> Uttar Pradesh

(3) Chandigarh > Delhi > Uttar Pradesh

(4) Delhi > Chandigarh > West Bengal > Uttar Pradesh

Ans. (4)

39. Match List-II (Factory) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Factory) List-II (Location)

A. Rail Coach Factory 1. Bangalore

B. Integral Coach Factory 2. Varanasi

C. Wheel and Axle Plant 3. Kapurthala

D. Diesel Loco Works 4. Perambur

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 4 1 2

(2) 2 1 4 3

(3) 3 1 4 2

(4) 2 4 1 3

Ans. (1)

40. Which one of the following states accounts for maximum production of gold in India? (1) Karnataka

(2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Goa

(4) Tamil Nadu

Ans. (1)

41. Which one of the following is not located in Maharashtra?

(1) Goral Beach

(2) Alibaug Beach

(3) Erangal Beach

(4) Devbagh Beach

Ans. (3)

42. Relevance ranking is a term associated with which one of the following?

(1) Search engines in Internet

(2) Critics ranking of Hollywood picture

(3) Evaluation process used in purchase of aircrafts

(4) A strategy used in warfare

Ans. (2)

43. Trinidad and Tobago got independent in 1962 from which one of the following countries?

(1) Argentina

(2) Britain

(3) Spain

(4) Portugal

Ans. (2)

44. Match List- I (Institute) with List- II (Location) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Institute) (Location)

A. Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel Management 1. Bangalore

B. Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology 2. Pune

C. Indian Institute of Astrophysics 3. Gwalior

D. Indian Institute of Astrophysics 4. Hyderabad

5. Mumbai

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 2 5 1

(2) 5 1 4 2

(3) 3 1 5 2

(4) 5 2 4 1

Ans. (3)

45. Who among the following was associated with the ‘Great Arc’- one of the biggest survey exercises in the world?

(1) William Lambton

(2) Adam Smith

(3) E. Raisz

(4) Karl Scheibler

Ans. (4)

46. In which one of the following States is the Falta Special Economic Zone located?

(1) Kerala

(2) Gujarat

(3) Orissa

(4)West Benga1

Ans. (4)

47. Consider the following statements:

1. Pattadakal Group of Monuments have been recognized as a World Heritage Site

2. .Pattadakal Group of Monuments were built by the Chola Dynasty of Southern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) l only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (1)

Direction (48-50) .The following three (3) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and-select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Code:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but, R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Ans. (4)

48. Assertion (A): In the year 1919, M.A. Jinnah and M. M. Malaviya resigned their membership of Central Legislative Council

Reason (R): In the year 1919, the Government of India passed the Rowlatt Act, which was opposed by all the Indian members of the Legislative Council

Ans. (3)

49. Assertion (A): Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from the office of the President of the Indian National Congress in the year 1989.

Reason (R): Subhash Chandra Bose left the congress to form the Indian independence League in South-East Asia.

Ans. (3)

50. Assertion (A): In the Indian system, the Executive cannot impose any tax without any legislative sanction

Reason (R): It is expressly laid down by our constitution that no tax can be imposed unless it is authorized by an Approproriation Act

Ans. (3)

PRACTICE GENERAL AWARENESS QUESTIONS

1. Lake Sambhar is nearest to which of the following cities of Rajasthan?

(1) Bharatpur

(2) Ja1pur

(3) Jodhpur

(4) Udaipur

Ans. (2)

2. Consider the following statements:

1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body.

2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.

3. ‘Athlete’s foot’ is a disease caused by virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) 1 and 2

(2) 2 and 3

(3) 1 and 3

(4) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (4)

3. Two cars X and Y start from two places A and B respectively which are 700 km apart at 9 am both the cars run at an average speed of 60km/hr. Car X stops at 10 am. and again starts at 11 a.m.

While the other car Y continues to run without stopping. When do the cars cross each other?

(1) 1:40 p.m

(2) 3:20 pm

(3) 4:10 p.m

(4) 4:20 p.m.

Ans. (2)

4. Which among the following National Highway routes is the longest?

(1) Agra-Mumbai

(2) Chennai-Thane

(3) Kolkata-Hajira

(4) Pune-Machilipatnam

Ans. (3)

5. Consider the following statements:

1. Narsimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and seized the throne for himself and started the Saluva dynasty.

2. Vira Narasimha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the throne for himself.

3. Vira Narasimha was succeeded by his younger brother Krishnadeva Raya.

4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by the half-brother Achyuta Raya.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) 1, 2 and 3

(2) 2, 3 and 4

(3) l and 4

(4) l, 2, 3, and 4

Ans. (4)

6. Match List-I (Institute) with List-II (Located At) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Institute) List-II (Located At)

A. Indian Institute Geomagnetism 1. Coimbatore

B. International Advanced Research Centre 2. Mumbai

for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials

C. Salem Ali Centre for Ornithology and 3. Jabalpur

Natural History

D. Tropical Forestry Research Institute 4. Hyderabad

Code:

A B C D

(1) 2 3 1 4

(2) 1 4 2 3

(3) 2 4 1 3

(4) 1 3 2 4

Ans. (3)

7. Consider the following events during India’s Freedom struggle:

1. Cháuri-chaura Outrage

2. Minto-Morley Reforms

3. Dandi March

4. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms

Which one of the following is the correct ‘chronological order of the events given above?

(1) 1, 3, 2, 4

(2) 2, 4, 1, 3

(3) 1, 4, 2, 3

(4) 2, 3, 1, 4

Ans. (2)

8. Which one of the following four vedas contains an account of magical charms and spells?

(1) Rig-veda

(2) Yajur-veda

(3) Atharva-veda

(4) Sama-veda

Ans. (3)

9. The Montague-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of:

(1) The Indian Councils Act, 1909

(2) The Government of India Act, 1919

(3) the Government of India Act, 1935

(4) the Indian Independence Act, 1947

Ans. (2)

10. If the difference between 3/8 and 2/7 of a number are 50, then the number is:

(1) 500

(2) 520

(3) 540

(4) 560

Ans. (4)

11. If Chandra is shorter than Rina, Puja is taller than Sita and Sita is taller than Rina, who among them is the tallest?

(1) Chandra

(2) Puja

(3) Rina

(4) Sita

Ans. (2)

12. Latvia does not share its borders with which one of the following countries?

(1) Russia

(2) Estonia

(3) Lithuania

(4) Poland

Ans. (4)

13. Match List-I (Sea) with List- II (Country) and select the correct answer with the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Sea) List-II (Country)

A. Black Sea 1. Bulgaria

B. Red Sea 2. China

C. Yellow Sea 3. Eritrea

D. Caspian Sea 4. Kazakhstan

Code:

A B C D

(1) 1 4 2 3

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 1 3 2 4

(4) 2 4 1 3

Ans. (3)

14. A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at 7 am to walk around a rectangular field 400 m x 300 m. A and B walk at the rate of 3 km/hr respectively.

How many times shall they cross each other if they continue to walk till 12:30 p.m.?

(1) Not even once

(2) Once

(3) Twice

(4) Thrice

Ans. (2)

15. Consider the following international languages:

1. Arabic

2. French

3. Spanish

The correct sequence of the languages given above in the decreasing order of the number of their speakers is:

(1) 3, 1, 2

(2) 1, 3, 2

(3) 3, 2, 1

(4) 1, 2, 3

Ans. (1)

16. In the last one decade which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest Foreign Direct Investment inflows into India?

(1) Chemicals other than Fertilizers

(2) Services sector

(3) Food processing

(4) Telecommunication

Ans. (4)

17. If a water tank is filled by pump A in 6 hours and by pump B in 12 hours, how many hours it would take to fill the tank if the pumps A and B both are operated simultaneously?

(1) 2

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) 5

Ans. (3)

18. The missing number in the following series: 82, 97, 114, 133? Is:

(1) 152

(2) 153

(3) 154

(4) 155

Ans. (3)

19. A man is facing North-West. He turns 90° in Clock wise direction and then 135° in anticlock wise direction. Which direction he is facing now?

(l) North

(2) South

(3) East

(4) West

Ans. (4)

20. 100 mm is equivalent to:

(1) 0.001 meter.

(2) 0.01 meter

(3) 0.1 meter

(4) 1.0 meter

Ans. (3)

21. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Reinhold Messner : Computer Technology

(2 Harlow Shapely : Astronomy

(3) Gregor Mendel : Hereditary Theory

(4) Godfrey Hounsfield : CT Scan

Ans. (1)

22. Which of the following authors won the Booker Prize twice?

(1) Margaret Atwood

(2) J. M. Coetzee

(3) Graham Swift

(4) Jan McEwan

Ans. (2)

23. 50 men or 80 women can finish a job in 50 days. A contractor deploys 40 men and 48 women for this work, but after every duration of 10 days, 5 men and 8 women are removed till the work is completed. The work is completed in:

(1) 45days

(2) 50 days

(3) 54 days

(4) 62 days

Ans. (2)

24. A person stands at the middle point of a wooden ladder which starts slipping between a vertical wall and the floor of a room, while continuing to remain In a vertical plane. The path traced by a person

standing at the middle point of ‘the slipping ladder ‘is:

(1) straight line

(2) an elliptical path

(3) a circular path

(4) a parabolic path

Ans. (3)

25. Match List-I (New Name of the Countries) with List-II (Old names of the Countries) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (New Names of the Countries) List-II (Old Names of the Countries)

A. Benin 1. Nyasaland

B. Belize 2. Basutoland

C. Botswana 3. Bechuanaland

D. Malawi 4. British Honduras

5. Dahomey

Code:

A B C D

(1) 3 1 2 4

(2) 5 4 3 1

(3) 3 4 2 1

(4) 5 1 3 4

Ans. (2)

26. Consider the following statements:

1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.

2: Quicklime is used in the manufacture of glass.

3. Gypsum is used in the manufacture of Plaster of Paris.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) l and 2

(2) 2 and 3

(3) 1 only

(4) 1, 2, and 3

Ans. (4)

27. In how many different ways can six players be arranged in a line such that two of them Ajit and Mukherjee are never together?

(1) 120

(2) 240

(3) 360

(4) 480

Ans. (4)

28. Nine different letters are to be dropped in three different letter boxes. In how many different ways can this be done?

(1) 27

(2) 39

(3) 93

(4) 39-3

Ans. (2)

29. Which of the following institutes have been recognized as the Institute of National Importance (by an Act of Parliament)?

1. Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai

2. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Mohali

3. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Services and Technology, Thiruvananthayuram.

4. Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education, Gwalior

Select the correct answer using ‘the codes given below:

Code:

(1)1, 2 and 3

(2) 3 and 4

(3) l, 2 and 4

(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (4)

30. With reference to the constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Forests : Concurrent List

(2) Stocks & Exchanges : Concurrent List

(3 Post Office Saving Bank : Union List

(4) Public Health : State List

Ans. (2)

31. Consider the following tasks:

1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections.

2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all e1ection to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President.

3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and, individuals contesting the election.

4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes.

Which of the above is the functions of the Election Commission of India?

(1) l, 2 and 3

(2) 2, 3 and 4

(3) l and 3

(4) 1, 2 and 4

Ans. (1)

32. Match List-I (Sports-person) with List-II (Sport/Game) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Sports-person) List-II (Sport/game)

A. Shikha Tandon 1. Badminton

B. Ignace Tirkey 2. Swimming

C. Pankaj Advani 3. Lawn Tennis

D. Rohan Bopanna 4. Snooker

5. Hockey

Code:

A B C D

(1) 3 5 4 2

(2) 2 4 1 3

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 2 5 4 3

Ans. (4)

33. Three students are picked at random from a school having a total of 1000 students. The probability that these three students will have identical date and month of their birth is:

(1) 3/1000

(2) 3/365

(3) 1/ (365)2

(4) 1/ (365)2

Ans. (3)

34. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

List-I (Period) List-II (Wars)

1. AD 1767.69 1. First Anglo-Maratha War

2. AD 1790-92 2. Third Mysore War

3. AD 1824-26 3. First Anglo-Burmese War

4. AD 1845-46 4 Second Sikh War

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Code:

(1) 2 and 4

(2) 3 and 4

(3) 1 and 2

(4) 2 and 3

Ans. (4)

35. In which one of the following Union Territories do the people of the Onge tribe live?

(1) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(2) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

(3) Daman and Diu

(4) Lakshadweep

Ans. (1)

36. Consider the following crops:

1. Cotton

2. Groundnut

2. Maize

3. Mustard

Which of the above are Kharif Crops?

(1) l and 2

(2) 1, 2 and 3

(3) 3 and 4

(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (2)

37. Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List-II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I

(Articles of the Constitution of India) List-II (Provision)

A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion,

race, caste, sex, and place of birth or any of them

B. Article 15 2. The State shall to deny to any person equality

before the law or the equal protection of laws

within the territory of India

C. Article 16 3. Untouchability is abolished and its practice in

any form is forbidden

D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all

citizens in matters relating to employment or

appointment to any office under the State.

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 4 1 3

(2) 3 1 4 2

(3) 2 1 4 3

(4) 3 4 1 2

Ans. (3)

38. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Pitt’s India Act : Warren Hasting

(2) Doctrine of Lapse : Dalhousie

(3) Vernacular Press Act : Curzon

(4) Ilbert Bill : Ripon

Ans. (3)

39. Match List-I (Beaches in India) with List-II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Beaches in India) List-II (States)

A. Gopinath Beach 1. Andhra Pradesh

B. Lawsons Bay Beach 2. Kerala

C. Devbah beach 3. Gujarat

D. Sinquerim Beach 4. Goa

5. Karnataka

Code:

A B C D

(1) 5 4 2 1

(2) 3 1 5 4

(3) 5 1 2 4

(4) 3 4 5 1

Ans. (2)

40. Consider the following statements:

1. Adam Osborne produced the first portable computer

2. Ian Wilmut created the first cloned sheep

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither l nor 2

Ans. (3)

41. Consider the following statements:

1. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on 26 January 1950.

2. The borrowing programme of the Government of India is handled by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.

Which of the ‘statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both l and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (4)

42. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Under the Targeted Public distribution System, the families below Poverty Line are provided 50 kg. of food grains per month per family at subsidized price

(2) Under Annapurna Scheme indigent senior citizens of 65 years of age or above eligible for national Old Age Pension but not getting pension can get 10 kg of food grain per person per month free of cost

(3) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has scheme in which indigent people living in welfare institutions like orphanages are given 15 kg of food grains per month at BPL rates

(4) Ministry of Human Resource Development given financial support to Midday Meal Scheme for the Benefit of class I to V students in government or Government aided Schools

Ans. (1)

43. Consider the following statements:

1. Non-function of lachrymal gland is an import symptom of deficiency of Vitamin A.

2. Deficiently of Vitamin B1 can lead to indigestion and heart enlargement.

3. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to pain in the muscles

4. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes Increased loss of Ca++ in urine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) l and 2

(2) 2, 3 and 4

(3) l, 3 and 4

(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (1)

44. The hormone insulin is a:

(1) Glycolipid

(2) Fatty acid

(3) Peptide

(4) Sterol

Ans. (3)

45. Consider the following statements:

1. In the third battle of Panipat, Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated Ibrahim Lodi

2. Tippu Sultan was killed in the third Anglo-Mysore War.

3. Mir Jafar entered in conspiracy with the English for the defeat of Nawab Slraj-ud-daulah in the Battle of Plessey

Which of the statements given is/are correct’?

(1) l, 2 and 3,

(2) 3 only

(3) 2 and 3

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

46. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?

(1) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of parliament before it can be enacted into law.

(2) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India, except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act.

(3) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation

(4) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President

Ans. (1)

47. Consider the following statements:

Some of the main features of the Government of India Act. 1935 were the:

1. Abolition of dyarchy in the Governor’s provinces

2. Power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate on their own

3. abolition of the principle of communal representation

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 1 and 2

(3) 2 and 3

(4) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (2)

Directions: (48-55) The following 8 (eight) items consists two statements: one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R): You are to examine these items using the codes given below:

Codes:

(1) Both A and Rare individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) A is false but R is true

48. Assertion A: Bangalore receives much higher average annual rainfall than that of

Mangalore.

Reason(R): Bangalore has the benefit of receiving rainfall both from South-West and

North -East Monsoons

Ans. (4)

49. Assertion A: The central Rural Sanitation programme was launched in 1986 to improve the quality of life of rural people in India

Reas0n (R): Rural Sanitations a subject in the Concurrent list in the Constitution of India.

Ans. (3)

50. Assertion (A): West-flowing rivers of Peninsular India have no deltas.

Reason (R): These rivers do not carry any alluvial sediment.

Ans. (1)

51. Assertion (A): The thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the Equator. Reason (R): High insolation and strong convection currents occur over the equator.

Ans. (4)

52. Assertion (A): In our houses, the current in electricity line change direction 60 second per second.

Reason (R): The frequency of alternating voltage supplied is 60 hertz.

Ans. (1)

53. Assertion (A): Fatty acids should be a part of the human diet

Reason (R): The cells of the human body cannot synthesize any fatty acids.

Ans. (3)

54. Assertion (A): India does not export rubber

Reason (R): About 97 percent of India’s demand for natural rubber is met from domestic production.

Ans. (2)

55. Assertion (A): The urban population of India (2001) exceeds the total population of the U.S.A.

Reason (R): India is more urbanized than the U.S.A.

Ans. (3)

56. Which one of the following cities is not correctly matched with its country?

(1) Salamanca : Spain

(2) Cannes : Italy

(3) Cancun : Mexico

(4) Bruges : Belgium

Ans. (2)

57. Which one of the following statements is correct?

‘Deccan Odyssey’ is

(1) a book on Chatrapati Shivaji

(2) a warship recently acquired by the Indian Navy

(3) a recently started air service between Mumbai and Colombo

(4) a luxury train which travels through Mahrashtra and includes Goa in its journey.

Ans. (4)

58. Which one of the following Article of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice that exercise of the executive power of the Union?

(1) Article. 57

(2) Article 258

(3) Article 355

(4) Article 356

Ans. (1)

59. Match List-I (Minerals) with List-II (location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I Minerals List-II (Location)

A. Coal 1 Giridih

B. Copper 2. Jayamkondam

C. Manganese 3. Alwar

D. Lignite 4. Dharwar

Code:

A B C D

(1) 1 4 3 2

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 1 3 4 2

(4) 2 4 3 1

Ans. (3)

60. Consider the following geological phenomena:

1. Development of fault

2. Movement along a fault

3. Impact produced by a volcanic eruption

4 Folding of rocks

Which of the above cause earthquakes?

(l) l, 2 and 3

(2) 2 and 4

(3) 1, 3 and 4

(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (4)