Longest Or Largest Human Body Bones

	Femur is the largest and longest bone in human body. It forms the upper part of human leg. Its average length in adult male is 50.50 centimeter. This bone is also found in mammals, reptiles and vertebrates i.e frog, lizards, amphibians etc. Femur is Latin word which means thigh hence it is also known as thigh bone.
	Tibia is the second largest bone in the human body and no doubt the strongest bone of human body because it bears the body weight of person. It forms the inner-lower part of human leg. The average length of tibia is 43.03 CM. Tibia is Latin word which means an ancient type of musical instrument. Shin bone and shank bone are other names of Tibia.
	Fibula (also known as Calf Bone) is located in the outer-lower part of human leg. Fibula is the third largest bone in the human body. Fibula along with Tibia forms the lower part of human leg as it is located on the lateral side of Tibia. It is relatively weak and thin as compared with Tibia. The average length of tibia is 40.50 CM.
	Humerus bone connects shoulder with elbow in human arm. It is a long bone which consists of three parts i.e. upper extremity of Humerus, body of Humerus and lower extremity of Humerus. Humerus forms the upper part of human arm and many important muscles are attached with it. The average length of tibia is 36.46 CM.
	Ulna forms the inner-lower part of human arm. This fore-arm bone along with radius completes the lower part of human arm. Its average length in 28.20 Cm. In simple words it connects elbow with hand. It is a long and narrow bone with many muscles attached with it.
	Radius is a long bone which forms the outer-lower part of human arm. It is on the lateral side of Ulna and its length is 26.42 cm. Radius is also found in some four-leg animals as lower part of forelimb. Like Ulna it connects hand with elbow.
	7th rib is part of the 24 ribs found in a human body. The average length of 7th rib is 24.00 CM. Ribs are basically found in Vertebrates and they support the upper body of vertebrates.
	8th rib: These long and curved bones are considered as the basic structural part of human body. 8th rib is the part of 12 pairs of ribs in human body. The average length of 8th rib is 23.00 CM.
	Innominate bone is also called hipbone or half pelvis. It is the 9th largest bone in human body. Its average length is 18.50 Cm. Innominate bone is either of the two bones that form the sides of the pelvis, consisting of three fused components, the ilium, ischium, and pubis Nontechnical name hipbone.
	Sternum is the tenth largest bone in human body and its average length is 17.00 Cm. It is also called breastbone and it is found in both males and females with the same length. Sternum is a long, flat bone located in the center of the chest, serving as a support for the collarbone and ribs.

Human Body Organs

There are almost 78 organs in a human body which vary according to their sizes, functions or actions. An organ is a collection of millions of cells which group together to perform single function in a human body. The cells in these body organs are highly specialized and formed for all the necessary actions for some specific time. Out of these 78 organs of a male or female body, skin is the largest or biggest organ with respect to its size and weight. The mojor or prerequisite human organ is the brain which handles all the functions and actions of a human body. Other top ten  or 10 human body organs are given in the following list with names and functions.

	Skin is the largest or biggest human body organ. The average weight of skin in human body is about 10,886 grams which varies according to the size and weight of human being. Human skin is made up of different ectodermal tissues and it protects all the inner body organs like liver, glands, stomach, heart etc. Other functions are heat regulation, interaction with atmosphere, protection from diseases, absorption and sensation.
	Liver is the second largest organ of male or female human body. Its average weight in a normal human body is 1,560 gms. The liver recieves blood full of digested food from the gut. It stores some foods and delivers the rest to the other cells through blood. The other function of liver is to change the left material into harmless waste called urine.
	Brain is the third largest and major organ of human body. Its average weight in a normal human body is 1,263 gms. The brain controls the actions of all the body parts. There are about 100 billion cells in human brain which make about 100 trillion nerve connections with nerve cells for messaging. Medulla oblongata, Midbrain, Hind brain, Cerebellum, Spinal cord and Venticle are some of the major parts of a human brain.
	Lungs is the fourth biggest organ of human beings body. The average total weight of the right and left lung in a normal human body is about 1,090 gms. The major function of lungs is to inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide out of the red blood cells. The lungs can hold a total of upto 5 litres of air. The adult lungs have an internal area of over 90 meters, that is about half the area of a tennis court.
	Heart is the fifth largest human body organ which is prerequisite for a living human being. The major function of the heart is to pump the blood to every part of the body to deliver the energy to every body cell. In males the average weight of heart is 315 gm while in females this weight is about 265 gms. Ventricles, atrium and aorta are some of the main parts of a human heart.
	Kidneys is the sixth largest organ in every human body. There are two kidneys in every human being and the average weight of both the kidneys is about 290 grams. The major function of a kidney is to separate the waste amterial by filtering the blood. Both these kidneys filter our blood 50 times a day. If one kidney stops working the other will enlarge and do the work of two.
	Spleen is 170 grams heavy and it is the seventh largest or heaviest organ of the human body. It forms the red blood cells pulp and white blood cells pulp. Therefore it is helpful in making the blood and increasing the immunity of the human being.
	Pancreas is the eighth largest human organ with an average weight of 98 grams in human body. It is one of the most important gland which produces several hormones including insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin. The pancreas is a dual-function gland, having features of both endocrine and exocrine glands.
	Thyroid is the ninth biggest one in human organs system. The average weight of thyroid gland in human body is 35 grams. It is the largest gland in the human body. The function of this gland is to produce thyroxine and triiodothyronine hormones.
	Prostate is the tenth largest human organ gland with a weight of 20 grams.

Food Facts

Several studies have suggested that the best benefits of vitamins and minerals come when they’re taken from food rather than at a supplement. Here is how you can get your daily dose of vitamins and minerals: Vitamin Food Sources Vitamin A Meat, dairy products Beta Carotene Green leafy vegetables; yellow and orange fruit and vegetables (carrot, papaya, pumpkin) B1 Cereal Vegetables B2 Meat, beans, peanuts, leafy greens B3 Cereals B6 Meat, pulses, wheat B12 Liver, meat, eggs Folic Acid Fermented foods containing yeast (bread, idly, etc); fruit; leafy vegetables Pantothenic acid Liver, yeast, egg yolk, milk, soya Biotin Egg, peanuts, cheese, chicken Vitamin C Citrus fruit, potatoes, green vegetables Vitamin D Sunlight Vitamin E Almonds, vegetable oils, cereals, leafy greens Minerals Good Sources Calcium Dairy products, bony fish, leafy greens Phosphorus Supplied by normal eating Iodine Iodised salt Magnesium Fruits, vegetables, pulses and whole grains Zinc Seeds, e.g. til (sesame) Potassium Cereals, pulses and legumes, leafy greens Copper, Selenium and Chromium Most people get these enough from their diet

Facts of Human Body

In an average healthy adult, the volume of blood is one-eleventh of the body weight, or between 5 and 6 quarts. (The amount of oil used in the average V8 engine)

In ten years, the average man shaves off a pound of whiskers.

A cough releases an explosive charge of air that moves at speeds up to 60 mph.

A fingernail or toenail takes about 6 months to grow from base to tip.

A human being loses an average of 40 to 100 strands of hair a day.

A person will die from total lack of sleep sooner than from starvation. Death will occur about 10 days without sleep, while starvation takes a few weeks.

A sneeze can exceed the speed of 100 mph.

According to German researchers, the risk of heart attack is higher on Monday than any other day of the week.

According to the Kinsey Institute, the biggest erect penis on record measures 13 inches. The smallest tops off at 1 3/4 inches.

An average human scalp has 100,000 hairs.

Blondes have more hair than dark-haired people.

By age sixty, most people have lost half of their taste buds.

By the time you turn 70, your heart will have beat some two-and-a-half billion times (figuring on an average of 70 beats per minute.)

Only one person in two billion will live to be 116 or older.

Each square inch of human skin consists of twenty feet of blood vessels.

Every human spent about half an hour as a single cell.

Babies are born without knee caps. They don't appear until the child reaches 2-6 years of age.

Every person has a unique tongue print.

Every square inch of the human body has an average of 32 million bacteria on it.

Every time you lick a stamp, you're consuming 1/10 of a calorie.

Fingernails grow faster than toenails.

Our eyes are always the same size from birth, but our nose and ears never stop growing.

Humans shed about 600,000 particles of skin every hour - about 1.5 pounds a year. By 70 years of age, an average person will have lost 105 pounds of skin.

Humans shed and re-grow outer skin cells about every 27 days - almost 1,000 new skins in a lifetime.

If it were removed from the body, the small intestine would stretch to a length of 22 feet.

If you are locked in a completely sealed room, you will die of carbon dioxide poisoning first before you will die of oxygen deprivation.

If you go blind in one eye, you'll only lose about one-fifth of your vision (but all your depth perception.)

In a lifetime the average US resident eats more than 50 tons of food and drinks more than 13,000 gallons of liquid.

It takes 17 muscles to smile --- 43 to frown.

Jaw muscles can provide about 200 pounds of force to bring the back teeth together for chewing.

Most men have erections every hour to hour and a half during sleep.

The "funny bone" is not a bone, it is a nerve.

The ashes of the average cremated person weigh nine pounds.

The average duration of sexual intercourse for humans is 2 minutes.

The average human body contains enough: iron to make a 3 inch nail, sulfur to kill all fleas on an average dog, carbon to make 900 pencils, potassium to fire a toy cannon, fat to make 7 bars of soap, phosphorous to make 2,200 match heads, and water to fill a ten-gallon tank.

The average human produces 25,000 quarts of spit in a lifetime, enough to fill two swimming pools.

The average person releases nearly a pint of intestinal gas by flatulence every day. Most is due to swallowed air. The rest is from fermentation of undigested food.

The feet account for one quarter of all the human bodies bones -- That's 52 bones in the feet alone.

The average person takes 8,000 to 10,000 steps a day. Those cover several miles, and they all add up to about 115,000 miles in a lifetime -- equal to circling the globe nearly five times.

When a person weighing 150 pounds jogs three miles, the cumulative impact on each foot is greater than 150 tons.

A pair of feet have 250,000 sweat glands and can produce as much as eight ounces of sweat in one day.

The human body has enough fat to produce 7 bars of soap.

The human body has over 600 muscles, 40% of the body's weight.

The human brain is about 85% water.

The largest cell in the human body is the female reproductive cell, the ovum. The smallest is the male sperm.

The largest human organ is the skin, with a surface area of about 25 square feet.

The left lung is smaller than the right lung to make room for the heart.

The most common blood type in the world is Type O. The rarest, Type A-H, has been found in less than a dozen people since the type was discovered.

The sound of a snore (up to 69 decibels) can be almost as loud as the noise of a pneumatic drill.

There are 45 miles of nerves in the skin of a human being.

Three-hundred-million cells die in the human body every minute.

Women burn fat more slowly than men, by a rate of about 50 calories a day.

Women's hearts beat faster than men's.

VITAMINS

The Vitamins are necessary auxiliaries in metabolism. They combine with specific proteins, as parts of various oxidative enzyme systems which are concerned with the breakdown of carbohydrates, proteins, and fat in the body. Thus, they are intimately involved in the mechanism which releases energy, carbon dioxide and water as the end products of metabolism.
Vitamins can be broadly divided into Fat Soluble and Water Soluble Vitamins. Vitamins A  D   E  and  K are fat-soluble vitamins. Vitamins B ( B1  B2   B6  B12 ) and C are water-soluble.

Vitamin - A
Year	1913
	Retinol
Main Metabolic Function	Essential for normal growth and development. For normal function of epithelical cells and normal development of teeth and bones. Prevents Night blindness.
Deficiency - Effects	Retarded growth. Reduced resistance to infection. Abnormal function of gastrointestinal, and respiratory tracts due to altered epithelial membranes. Interferes with production of "night purple".
Available	Milk, Egg yolk, Ghee, Butter, Carrots, Tomatoes, Leafy and Yellow vegetables, Cod liver oil and Fresh fruits.
Nature	Fat-Soluble
Year	1936
	Thiamin
Main Metabolic Function	An important aid in carbohydrate metabolism. Needed for Proper functioning of the digestive tract and nervous system. Beriberi. Loss of muscle.
Deficiency - Effects	Loss of appetite. Impaired digestion of starches and sugars. Various nervous disorder coordination.
Available	Peas, Beans and Cereals.
Nature	Water-Soluble
Vitamin - B2
Year	1935
	Riboflavin
Main Metabolic Function	Needed in formation of certain enzymes and in cellular oxidation. Prevents inflammation of oral mucous membranes and the tongue.
Deficiency - Effects	Impaired growth, lassitude and weakness. Causes cheillosis or glossittis. May result in Photophobia and cataracts.
Available	Peas, Beans and Cereals.
Nature	Water-Soluble
Vitamin - B6
Year	1934
	Pyridoxine
Main Metabolic Function	Acts as do other B vitamins. To break down protein, carbohydrate and fat. Acts as a catalyst in the formation of niacin from tryptophan.
Deficiency - Effects	Increased irritability, convulsions and peripheral neuritis. Anorexia, nausea and vomiting.
Available	Peas, Beans and Cereals.
Nature	Water-Soluble
Vitamin - B12
Year	1948
	Cyanocobalamin
Main Metabolic Function	Essential for development of red blood cells. Required for maintenance of skin, nerve tissues, bone and muscles.
Deficiency - Effects	Results in pernicious anaemia. Weakness, fatigue, sore and cracked lips.
Available	Peas, Beans and Cereals.
Nature	Water-Soluble
Vitamin - C
Year	1919
	Ascorbic Acid
Main Metabolic Function	Needed for form the cementing substance, collagen, in various tissues (skin, dentine, cartilage and bone matrix). Assists in woundhealing and bone fractures.
Deficiency - Effects	Lowered resistance to infections. Susceptibility to dental cavities, pyotthea and bleeding gums. Delayed wound healing. Specific treatment for Scurvy.
Available	Fresh vegetables, Lemon, Orange, Tomatoes, Cabbage , Turnip and Lettuce (Beetroot).
Nature	Water-Soluble
Year	1925
	Cholecalciferol
Main Metabolic Function	Requlates absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestinal tract. Affords antiachitic activity.
Deficiency - Effects	Interferes with utilisation of calcium and phosphorus in bone and teeth formation. Development of bone disease, rickets and caries.
Available	Butter, Milk, Ghee, Cod liver oil, Yolk of Eggs and also in Sunrays.
Nature	Fat-Soluble
Vitamin - E
Year	1936
	Tocopherols
Main Metabolic Function	Protects tissues, cell membranes and Vitamin A against peroxidation. Helps strengthen red blood cells.
Deficiency - Effects	Decreased red blood cell resistance to rupture.
Available	Germinating Wheat.
Nature	Fat-Soluble
Vitamin - K
Year	1935
	Phytomenadione
Main Metabolic Function	Essential for formation of normal amounts of prothrombin and blood coagulation.
Deficiency - Effects	diminished blood clotting time. Increased incidence of hemorrhages.
Available	Fish, Wheat and Oats.
Nature	Fat-Soluble

Branches of science

 Aerodynamics:  the study of the motion of gas on objects and the forces created

Anatomy: the study of the structure and organization of living things
Anthropology: the study of human cultures both past and present
Archaeology: the study of the material remains of cultures
Astronomy: the study of celestial objects in the universe
Astrophysics: the study of the physics of the universe
Bacteriology: the study of bacteria in relation to disease
Biochemistry: the study of the organic chemistry of compounds and processes occurring in organisms
Biophysics: the application of theories and methods of the physical sciences to questions of biology
Biology: the science that studies living organisms
Botany: the scientific study of plant life
Chemical Engineering: the application of science, mathematics, and economics to the process of converting raw materials or chemicals into more useful or valuable forms
Chemistry: the science of matter and its interactions with energy and itself
Climatology: the study of climates and investigations of its phenomena and causes
Computer Science: the systematic study of computing systems and computation
Ecology: the study of how organisms interact with each other and their environment
Electronics: science and technology of electronic phenomena
Engineering: the practical application of science to commerce or industry
Entomology: the study of insects
Environmental Science: the science of the interactions between the physical, chemical, and biological components of the environment
Forestry: the science of studying and managing forests and plantations, and related natural resources
Genetics: the science of genes, heredity, and the variation of organisms
Geology: the science of the Earth, its structure, and history
Marine Biology: the study of animal and plant life within saltwater ecosystems
Mathematics: a science dealing with the logic of quantity and shape and arrangement
Medicine: the science concerned with maintaining health and restoring it by treating disease
Meteorology: study of the atmosphere that focuses on weather processes and forecasting
Microbiology: the study of microorganisms, including viruses, prokaryotes and simple eukaryotes
Mineralogy: the study of the chemistry, crystal structure, and physical (including optical) properties of minerals
Molecular Biology: the study of biology at a molecular level
Nuclear Physics: the branch of physics concerned with the nucleus of the atom
Neurology: the branch of medicine dealing with the nervous system and its disorders
Oceanography: study of the earth’s oceans and their interlinked ecosystems and chemical and physical processes
Organic Chemistry: the branch of chemistry dedicated to the study of the structures, synthesis, and reactions of carbon-containing compounds
Ornithology: the study of birds
Paleontology: the study of life-forms existing in former geological time periods
Petrology: the geological and chemical study of rocks
Physics: the study of the behavior and properties of matter
Physiology: the study of the mechanical, physical, and biochemical functions of living organisms
Radiology: the branch of medicine dealing with the applications of radiant energy, including x-rays and radioisotopes
Seismology: the study of earthquakes and the movement of waves through the Earth
Taxonomy: the science of classification of animals and plants
Thermodynamics: the physics of energy, heat, work, entropy and the spontaneity of processes
Zoology: the study of animals

Different Types of Phobias

Phobia is  an anxiety disorder characterized by extreme and irrational fear of simple things or social situations; “phobic disorder is a general term for all phobias”

Phobia	Description
Acrophobia, Altophobia	Fear of heights
Agoraphobia	Fear of a place or event where escape is impossible or when help is unavailable
Ailurophobia	Fear of cats
Algophobia	Fear of pain
Amaxophobia	Fear of vehicles, driving
Androphobia	Fear of males
Anthropomorphobia	Fear or dislike of anthropomorphic traits
Apiphobia, Melissophobia	Fear of bees
Aquaphobia, Hydrophobia	Fear of water
Arachnophobia	Fear of spiders
Astraphobia, Astrapophobia, Brontophobia, Keraunophobia	Fear of thunder, lightning and storms; especially common in young children
Autophobia, Monophobia	Fear of being alone
Aviophobia, Aviatophobia	Fear of flying
Bacillophobia, Bacteriophobia, Microbiophobia	Fear of microbes and bacteria
Batrachophobia	Fear of frogs, amphibians
Biphobia	Fear of bisexuals
Blennophobia	Fear of slime
Bovophobia	Fear of cattle
Carcinophobia	Fear of cancer
Chiroptophobia	Fear of bats
Cibophobia,Sitophobia	Aversion to food
Claustrophobia	Fear of confined spaces
Clinophobia	Fear of going to bed or falling asleep
Coulrophobia	Fear of clowns
Cynophobia	Fear of dogs
Dental phobia, Dentophobia, Odontophobia	Fear of dentists and dental procedures
Dementophobia	Fear of insanity
Dromophobia	Fear of crossing streets
Dysmorphophobia, or body dysmorphic disorder	A phobic obsession with a real or imaginary body defect
Emetophobia	Fear of vomiting
Entomophobia	Fear of insects
Ephebophobia	Fear of youth or adolescents
Equinophobia, Hippophobia	Fear of horses
Ergasiophobia, Ergophobia	Fear of work or functioning, or a surgeon’s fear of operating
Erotophobia	Fear of sexual love or sexual questions
Erythrophobia	Pathological blushing
Genophobia, Coitophobia	Fear of sexual intercourse
Gephyrophobia	Fear of crossing bridges
Gerontophobia	Fear of growing old or a hatred of old people
Glossophobia	Fear of speaking in public or of trying to speak
Gymnophobia, Nudophobia	Fear of nudity
Heliophobia	Fear of sunlight
Hemophobia, Haemophobia	Fear of blood
Herpetophobia	Fear of reptiles
Heterophobia	Fear/dislike of heterosexuals
Hexakosioihexekontahexaphobia	Fear of the number 666
Homilophobia	Fear of sermons
Homophobia	Fear, dislike, or hatred of homosexual people
Hoplophobia	Fear of firearms (guns)
Hydrophobia	Fear of water
Lalophobia, Laliophobia	Fear of speaking
Ligyrophobia	Fear of loud noises
Linonophobia	Fear of string
Islamophobia	Fear-induced prejudice against Muslims or Islamic culture
Musophobia	Fear of mice and/or rats
Mysophobia	Fear of germs, contamination or dirt
Necrophobia, Thanatophobia	Fear of death, the dead
Neophobia, Cainophobia, Cainotophobia, Cenophobia, Centophobia, Kainolophobia, Kainophobia	Fear of newness, novelty
Nosophobia	Fear of contracting a disease
Numerophobia	Fear of numbers
Nyctophobia, Achluophobia, Lygophobia, Scotophobia	Fear of darkness
Ochlophobia	Fear of crowds
Ophidiophobia	Fear of snakes
Ornithophobia	Fear of birds
Osmophobia, Olfactophobia	Fear of smells
Paraskavedekatriaphobia, Paraskevidekatriaphobia, Friggatriskaidekaphobia	Fear of Friday the 13th
Panphobia	Fear of everything or constantly afraid without knowing what is causing it
Phasmophobia	Faer of ghosts
Phobophobia	Fear of phobias
Photophobia	Hypersensitivity to light causing aversion to light
Phonophobia	Hypersensitivity to sound causing aversion to sounds
Pnigophobia	Fear of choking
Pogonophobia	Faer of beards
Pyrophobia	Fear of fire
Radiophobia	Fear of radiation or X-rays
Siderodromophobia	Fear of trains
Sociophobia	Fear/dislike of society or people in general
Taphophobia	Fear of the grave, or fear of being placed in a grave while still alive
Technophobia	Fear of technology
Tokophobia	Fear of childbirth
Transphobia	Fear or dislike of transgender or transsexual people
Trichophobia	Fear of hair
Triskaidekaphobia, Terdekaphobia	Fear of the number 13
Trypanophobia, Aichmophobia, Belonephobia, Enetophobia	Fear of needles, injections or of pointed objects
Xenophobia	Fear or dislike of strangers or the unknown
Zoophobia	Fear of animals

Blood group notation

According to above blood grouping systems, you can belong to either of following 8 blood groups:

A Rh+	B Rh+	AB Rh+	0 Rh+
A Rh-	B Rh-	AB Rh-	0 Rh-

Blood Group	Antigens	Antibodies	Can give blood to	Can receive blood from
AB Rh+	A, B and Rh	None	AB Rh+	AB Rh+ AB Rh - A Rh+ A Rh - B Rh+ B Rh - 0 Rh+ 0 Rh -
AB Rh -	A and B	None (Can develop Rh antibodies)	AB Rh - AB Rh+	AB Rh - A Rh - B Rh - 0 Rh -
A Rh+	A and Rh	B	A Rh+ AB Rh+	A Rh+ A Rh - 0 Rh+ 0 Rh -
A Rh -	A	B (Can develop Rh antibodies)	A Rh - A Rh+ AB Rh - AB Rh+	A Rh - 0 Rh -
B Rh+	B and Rh	A	B Rh+ AB Rh+	B Rh+ B Rh - 0 Rh+ 0 Rh-
B Rh -	B	A (Can develop Rh antibodies)	B Rh- B Rh+ AB Rh- AB Rh+	B Rh - 0 Rh -
0 Rh+	Rh	A and B	0 Rh+ A Rh+ B Rh+ AB Rh+	0 Rh+ 0 Rh -
0 Rh -	None	A and B (Can develop Rh antibodies)	AB Rh+ AB Rh - A Rh+ A Rh - B Rh+ B Rh - 0 Rh+ 0 Rh -	0 Rh -

article source : nobelprize.org

Biological Science Exam Questions

Q. 1. Biological organisation starts with:
a. Atomic level
b. Submicroscopic molecular level
c. Cellular level
d. Organismic level
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 2. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and:
a. calcium and phosphorous
b. phosphorus and sulphur
c. sulphur and magnesium
d. magnesium and sodium
Sol. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 3. Which one of the following is an example of negative feed back loop in humans?
a. Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot.
b. Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold.
c. Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles in to the eye
d. Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food.
Sol. When the set point of hypothalamus is disturbed by high temperature, it stimulates vasodilation and sweating while in low temperature there is vasoconstriction and shivering. Correct choice: 2

Q. 4. What is common to whale, seal and shark?
a. Homoiothermy
b. Seasonal migration]
c. Thick subcutaneous fat
d. Convergent evolution
Sol. Shark is poikilothermous. All three species show adaptations for aquatic life while these are not closely related. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 5. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
a. Phospholipids
b. Cholesterol
c. Glycolipids
d. Proline
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 6. Select the wrong statement from the following:
a. The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria.
b. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain and inner and an outer membrane
c. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane
d. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 7. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the formation of:
a. Nucleic acids
b. ATP is small stepwise units
c. ATP in one large oxidation reaction
d. Sugars
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 8. If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same value, the following is most likely to occur:
a. a skewed curve
b. a normal distribution
c. a bi-modal distribution
d. a T -shaped curve
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 9. Which one of the following is a slime mould?
a. Anabaena
b. Rhizopus
c. Physarum
d. Thiobacillus
Sol. Physarum is an acellular slime mould. Correct choice: (3)

Q.10. For a critical study of secondary growth in plants, which one of the following pairs is suitable?
a. Wheat and maiden hair fern
b. Sugarcane and sunflower
c. Teak and pine
d. Deodar and fern
Sol. Secondary growth occurs in gymnosperms and dicots. Correct choice: (3)

Q.11. Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma is wrong?
a. They cause disease in plants
b. They are also called PPLO
c. They are pleomorphic
d. They are sensitive to penicillin
Sol. Mycoplasma is not sensitive to penicillin due to absence of cell wall. Correct choice: (4)

Q.12. In the prothallus of vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different times. As a result:
a. self fertilization is prevented
b. there is no change in success rate of fertilization
c. there is high degree of sterility
d. one can conclude that the plant is apomictic
Sol. In vascular cryptogam i.e. in pteridophytes gametophyte is monoecious but protandrous to avoid self fertilization. Correct choice: (1)

Q.13. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they:
a. have same number of chromosomes
b. can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds
c. have more than 90 per cent similar genes
d. look similar and possess identical secondary metabolities.
Sol. The members of a species are inter-fertile and produce fertile offsprings. Correct choice: (2)

Q.14. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose?
a. Chemical composition of the cell wall
b. Types of pigments present in the cell
c. Nature of stored food materials in the cell
d. Structural organization of thallus.
Sol. The various algae are classified mainly on the types of pigments present in their cells. Correct choice: (2)

Q.15. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets?
a. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
b. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
c. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
d. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
Sol. The male gametes of bryophytes are biflagellete, and those of pteriodophytes are multiflagellate, except Selaginella having biflagellate gametes. The male gametes of gymnosperms are non motile except those of Cycas having multiciliate gametes. Correct choice: (1)

Q.16. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents:
a. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
b. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms formed
c. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
d. an opening in the mega gametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg.
Sol. In gymnosperms, below micropylar beak some of the cells of nucellus of ovule disintigerate to form pollen chamber. Correct choice: (3)

Q.17. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by:
a. peristome teeth
b. elaters
c. indusium
d. calyptra
Sol. In some liverworts like Marchantia spore dispersal is due to hydrochasy and is aided by elaters. Correct choice: (2)

Q.18. Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes?
a. Morchella and Mushrooms
b. Birds’ nest fungi and Pufballs
c. Pufballs and Claviceps
d. Peziza and Stink horns
Sol. Bird’s nest fungi – Cyathus, Pufballs – Lycoperdon, Both belong to the class Basidiomycetes. Correct choice: (3)

Q.19. ICBN stands for:
a. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
b. Indian Congress of Biological Names
c. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
d. International Congress of Biological Names
Sol. ICBN is one of the codes of nomenclature. It stands for International Code of Botanical Nomenclature. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 20. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of:
a. Claviceps
b. Phytophthora
c. Uncinula
d. Ustilago
Sol. Ergot of rye is caused by Claviceps purpurea. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 21. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed:
a. Convergent evolution
b. Divergent evolution
c. Microevolution
d. Co-evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 22. Adaptive radiation refers to:
a. Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
b. Adaptations due to Geographical isolation
c. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
d. Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 23. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for:
a. growth the movement
b. responsiveness to touch
c. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
d. reproduction
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 24. The Finches of Galapogas islands provide an evidence in favour of:
a. Biogeographical Evolution
b. Special Creation
c. Evolution due to Mutation
d. Retrogressive Evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 25. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is:
a. Random creation of new species
b. No change in the isolation faunax
c. Preventing Speciation
d. Speciation through reproductive isolation
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 26. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that:
a. Melanism is a pollution-generated feature
b. The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
c. The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area
d. The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area.
Sol. It is an example of directional selection. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 27. The concept of chemical evolution is based on:
a. Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals
b. Crystallization of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
c. Interaction of water, air and clay under
d. Effect of solar radiation of chemicals
Sol. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 28. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 CC in:
a. Homo habilis
b. Homo neanderthalensis
c. Homo erectus
d. Ramapithecus
Sol. Homo habilis had a cranial capacity in the range of 680-720 c.c. & that of Homo erectus erectus 775-990 c.c, Homo erectus pekinensis 915-1200 c.c., Homo neanderthalensis 1300-1600 c.c. Correct choice: (c)

Q. 29. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
a. Crocodile
b. Sea Urchin
c. Obelia
d. Lemur
-Chambered heart
- Parapodia
– Metagenesis
– Thecodont
(1) Only A and B
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only A and D
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 30. Select the correct statement from the following:
a. Mutations are random and directional
b. Darwinian variations are small and directionless
c. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
d. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrate.
Sol. It explains natural selection. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 31. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?
a. Ventral heart
b. Post-anal tail
c. Ventral Central nervous system
d. Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo
- Scorpion
- Octopus
– Leech
– Chamaeleon
Sol. Scorpion has dorsal heart. Post-anal tail is found only in chordates. Pharyngeal gill slits are present in the embryo of chameleon. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 32. What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?
a. Ovoparity
b. Homoiothermy
c. Toothless jaws
d. Functional post -anal tail
Sol. Only birds & mammals are homoiothermous. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 33. What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach and Silver fish?
a. They all belong to the same phylum
b. They all have jointed paired appendages
c. They all possess dorsal heart
d. None of them is aquatic
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 34. Which one of the following statement is correct?
a. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
b. Stem cells are specialized cells
c. There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
d. All plant and animal cells are totipotent.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 35. “Foolish Seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of:
a. IAA
b. GA
c. ABA
d. 2, 4 – D
Sol. Foolish seeding disease (Bakane disease) of rice is due to a fungus Giberella fujikuroi. Yabuta and Sumuki obtained achemical from the fungus and called gibbrellic acid. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 36. Passage cells are thin- walled cells found in:
a. central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary.
b. endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle.
c. phloem elements that serve as entry points for substances for transport to other plant parts.
d. testa of seed to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination.
Sol. Passage cells also called transfusion tissue are found in the endodermis meant for rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 37. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is:
a. Quinone
b. Cytochrome
c. Iron-sulphur protein
d. Ferredoxin.
Sol. The first acceptor of electros from an excited chlorophyll is quinone. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 38. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is:
a. succinate dehydrogenase
b. lactate dehydrogenase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
d. malate dehydrogenase
Sol. Succinate dehydrogenase is a common enzyme for TCA and ETC. It is located on inner mitochondrial membrane. Rest of the TCA enzymes are present in mitochondrial matrix. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 39. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of phytochrome is:
a. 620 nm
b. 640 nm
c. 680 nm
d. 720 nm
Sol. The Pr form of phytochrome receives red light (600-680 nm) and changes into Pfr. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 40. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is type of:
a. Autonomic movement of growth
b. Autonomic movement of locomotion
c. Autonomic movement of variation
d. Paratonic movement of growth.
Sol. Opening of floral bud into flowers, is due to epinasty, a type of autonomic movement of growth. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 41. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
a. IAA – Cell wall elongation
b. Abscissic Acid – Stomatal closure
c. Gibberellic Acid – Leaf fall
d. Cytokinin – Cell division
Sol. Leaf fall is due to interaction of auxin and ethylene. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 42. One gene – one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in:
a. Diploccus pneumoniae
b. Neurospora crassa
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Escherichia Coli
Sol. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was given by Beadle and Tatum in red mould (Neurospora crassa). Correct choice: (2)

Q. 43. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of:
a. Microspore mother cell
b. Microspore
c. Generative cell
d. Vegetative cell
Sol. During the development of male gametophyte first of all two cells – generative cell and tube nucleus are formed from a pollen. This twocelled stage is called pollen grain. Finally the generative cell divides to form 2-male gametes. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 44. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure – 7atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be:
a. Movement of water of Cell A to B
b. Movement of water from Cell B to A
c. No movement of water
d. Equilibrium between the two
Sol. The direction of movement of water is from low to high DPD. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 45. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of:
a. Epidermis
b. Mesophyll
c. Bundle Sheath
d. Phloem
Sol. In C4 plants, C4 cycle occurs in mesophyll cells and C3 cycle in bundle sheath cells. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 46. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing microorganism?
a. Cicer arietinum
b. Casuarina equisetifolia
c. Crotalaria juncea
d. Cycas revolute
Sol. The filamentous nitrogen – fixing microorganism like Frankia occurs in root-nodules of non-leguminous plants like Casuarina and Alnus. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 47. Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?
a. Pollen grain
b. Microspore mother cell
c. Male gamete
d. Egg
Sol. The microspore mother cells develops an internal layer of callose which breaks the plasmodesmatal connections among themselves. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 48. Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant growth?
a. Ca
b. Mn
c. Zn
d. Cu
Sol. Calcium is an essential macronutrient for plant growth. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 49. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?
a. Haemocytes
b. Serum albumins
c. Serum globulins
d. Fibrinogen in the plasma
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 50. Which one of the following is a fat -soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
a. Calciferol – Pellagra
b. Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
c. Retinol – Xerophthalmia
d. Cobalamine – Beri-beri
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 51. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon-dioxide aerobically?
a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Unstriated muscle cells
d. Liver cells
Sol. RBCs do not have mitochondria & thus can respire only anaerobically. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 52. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of:
a. lower levels of adrenalin / noradrenalin in its blood
b. higher levels of thyroxin
c. higher levels of cortisone
d. lower levels of blood testosterone
Sol. The bullock is castrated and therefore secretion of testosterone is not adequate. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 53. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of:
a. FSH only
b. LH only
c. Combination of FSH and LH
d. Combination of estrogen and progesterone
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 54. In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?
a. Cranial nerves
b. Floating ribs
c. Collar bones
d. Salivary glands
- 10 pairs
- 2 pairs
– 3 pairs
–1 pair
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 55. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently?
a. Hyaline cartilage
b. Ciliated epithelium
c. Thrombocytes
d. Tendon
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 56. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?
a. Whole blood from pulmonary vein
b. Blood plasma
c. Blood serum
d. Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
Sol. Blood serum does not contain fibrinogen and few other clotting factors, thus it will not coagulate. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 57. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action?
a. Gastrin
b. Thyroxin
c. Adrenaline
d. Glucagon
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 58. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have:
a. less urea in his urine
b. more sodium in his urine
c. less amino acids in his urine
d. more glucose in his blood.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 59. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cell?
a. Nucleus and mitochondria
b. Perikaryon and dendrites
c. Vacuoles and fibers
d. Flagellum and medullary sheath
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q.60. Which part of ovary in mam mals acts as an endocrine gland after evolution?
a. Vitelline membrane
b. Graafian follicle
c. Stroma
d. Germinal epithelium
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 61. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
a. First positive, then negative and again back to positive
b. First negative, then positive and again back to negative
c. First positive, then negative and continue to be negative
d. First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 62. A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorous metabolism in his body. Which one of the following glands may not be functioning properly?
a. Thyroid
b. Parathyroid
c. Parotid
d. Pancreas
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 63. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned:
a. Rann of Kutch
b. Dachigam National Park
c. Sunderbans
d. Periyar
- Wild Ass
- Snow Leopard
–Bengal Tiger
–Elephant
Sol. Dachigam National Park is for the conservation of Hangul. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 64. In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage (S), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order?
a. S < DE < PE < SE
b. SE < S < PE < DE
c. SE < PE < S < DE
d. PE < S < SE < DE
Sol. BOD of distillery effluent is 40,000 mg / l and that of paper mill effluent and sewage is 190 mg/l and 30 mg/l, respectively. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 65. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?
a. Temperate deciduous forest
b. Tropical rain forest
c. Tropical deciduous forest
d. Temperate evergreen forest
Sol. Tropical rain forest has highest annual net primary productivity (9000 K cal / m 2 / yr). Correct Choice: (2)

Q. 66. Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of biodiesel in the Indian countryside?
a. Pongamia
b. Euphorbia
c. Beetroot
d. Sugarcane
Sol. Pongamia, Jatropa, Euphorbia are petrocrops. However, in the Indian countryside, Pongamia (Kanjar) is being utilized as a source of biodiesel. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 67. In a coal fires power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of:
a. CO
b. SO2
c. NOX
d. SPM
Sol. Electrostatic precipitators control emission of suspended particle matter (SPM). Correct choice: (4)

Q. 68. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?
a. Sewage fungus
b. Sludge-worms
c. Blood-worms
d. Stone flies
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 69. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in:
a. Predation on one another
b. Mutualism
c. Intra specific competition
d. Inter specific competition
Sol. Intra-specific competition occurs between the members of the same species. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 70. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of:
a. Ecosystem
b. Biotic community
c. Population
d. Landscape
Sol. Age structure is one of the characteristics of population. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 71. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in India?
a. Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
b. Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
c. Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
d. Water hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria
Sol. Lantana camara and Eicchornia czassipes (water hyacinth) are exotic species. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 72. One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of:
a. Nepenthes
b. Podophyllum
c. Ocimum
d. Garlic
Sol. Podophyllum hexandrum – : (Papri), gives a drug from its rhizome; besides being stimulant and purgative and has destructive action on cancerous tissues. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 73. A genetically engineered micro-organism used successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of:
a. Bacillus
b. Pseudomonas
c. Trichoderma
d. Xanthomonas
Sol. Pseudomonas putida (superbug) developed by genetic engineering by Anand Mohan Chakravorty is used to control oil spills. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 74. A sequential expression of a set of human genes occurs when a steroid molecule binds to the:
a. Ribosome
b. Transfer RNA
c. Messenger RNA
d. DNA sequence
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 75. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth:
a. polymerize in the direction and explain DNA replication
b. result in transcription
c. polymerize in the direction and forms replication fork
d. prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
Sol. Replication occurs always in direction. Okazaki fragments, synthesized on DNA template, join to form lagging strand which grows in direction. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 76. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are:
a. n = 21 and x = 7
b. n = 7 and x = 21
c. n = 21 and x = 21
d. n = 21 and x = 14
Sol. The basic number (x) of wheat is 7. Thus the 6x = 2n = 42 and n = 21. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 77. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by:
a. Anticodon
b. RNA polymerase
c. Ribosome
d. Transcription factor
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 78. Telomere repetitive DNA sequence control the function of eukaryote chromosomes because they:
a. prevent chromosome loss
b. act as replicons
c. are RNA transcription initiator
d. help chromosome pairing
Sol. Telomerase seal the ends of the chromosomes. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 79. Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of:
a. codominance
b. chromosomal aberration
c. point mutation
d. polygenic inheritance
Sol. Inheritance of skin colour in human is controlled by three genes, A, B and C. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 80. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by:
a. crossing of one F1progeny with male parent
b. crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent
c. crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent
d. studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies.
Sol. To find the genotype of hybrid, it is test crossed. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 81. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle – like structure. What is it’s DNA-binding sequence?
a. TATA
b. TTAA
c. AATT
d. CACC
Sol. The DNA binding sequence for RNA polymerase is called TATA box. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 82. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will show:
a. Higher number of the parental types.
b. Higher number of the recombinant types.
c. Segregation in the expected 9: 3: 3: 1 ratio.
d. Segregation in 3:1 ratio.
Sol. When the linked genes are situated quite close, the chances of crossing over are highly reduced. Due to this, large number of parental gametes are formed and only few recombinant gametes are formed. This results in higher number of parental types in F2 generation as compared to recombinants. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 83. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by:
a. Inducing mutations.
b. Bombarding the seeds with DNA.
c. Crossing of two inbred parental lines.
d. Harvesting seeds from the most productive plants.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 84. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with:
a. Deletion of genes
b. Developmental mutations
c. Differential expression of genes
d. Lethal mutations
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 85. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation?
a. 3 : 1
b. 50 : 50
c. 9 : 1
d. 1 : 3
Sol. This is a monohybrid test cross. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 86. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?
a. Through elimination of repetitive DNA.
b. Deletion of non-essential genes.
c. Super-coiling in nucleosomes.
d. DNAse digestion.
Sol. The nucleosome model explains the packaging of histone proteins and DNA in the chromatin material which forms the chromosome. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 87. In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and:
a. from this upto eight identical twins can be produced
b. the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of others cows
c. in the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted into the womb other cows.
d. in the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for further development in culture media.
Sol. As per the experiment performed by the scientist from Japan. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 88. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers.
b. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.
c. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants.
d. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and potassium for plant nutrition in soil.
Sol. The Agricultural run off contains high concentration of chemical fertilizers. Which is discharge in near by lakes causes nutrient enrichment of lakes called eutrophication. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 89. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?
a. The population of its predators increases enormously.
b. S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.
c. The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season.
d. Its population growth curve is of J-type.
Sol. A population which grows exponentially and crashes suddenly exhibits J-type growth curve. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 90. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are:
a. semiconservative
b. parallel
c. discontinuous
d. antiparallel
Sol. The two chains in a dsDNA run in opposite direction one while other in opposite direction. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 91. A plant requires magnesium for:
a. Cell wall development
b. Holdin g cells together
c. Protein synthesis
d. Chlorophyll synthesis

Q. 92. Probiotics are:
a. Live microbial food supplement
b. Safe antibiotics
c. Cancer inducing microbes
d. New kind of food allergens
Sol. Live microbial food supplements are called probiotics (e.g., curd). Correct choice: (1)

Q. 93. Bowman’s glands are located in the:
a. olfactory epithelium of our nose
b. proximal end of uriniferous tubules
c. anterior pituitary
d. female reproductive system of cockroach
Sol. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 94. Increased asthamatic attacks in certain seasons are related to:
a. Low temperature
b. Hot and humid environment
c. Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
d. Inhalation of seasonal pollen
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 95. A human male produces sperms with genotypes AB, Ab, aB and ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?
a. AABB
b. AaBb
c. AaBB
d. AABb
Sol. The formula for gamete formation is 2n where n stands for number of heterozygous pairs. AaBb has 2 heterozygous pairs so it will form 4 types of gametes. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 96. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
a. Coliforms
b. Methanogens
c. Yeast
d. Streptomycetes - Vinegar
-Gobar gas
–Ethanol
–Antibiotic
Sol. Coliforms are bacteria found in colon e.g. E. coli. For the preparation of vinegar Acetobacter aceti is employed. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 97. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Bombyx mori
b. Pila globosa
c. Apis indica
d. Kenia lacca -silk
-pearl
–honey
–lac
Sol. Pinctada vulgaris is a bivalve from which pearl is obtained. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 98. Which one of the following is viral disease of poultry?
a. Pasteurellosis
b. Salmonellosis
c. Coryza
d. New Castle disease
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 99. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography?
a. 45 – 70 MHz
b. 30 – 45 MHz
c. 15 – 30 MHz
d. 1 – 15 MHz
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 100. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys:
a. most virus-infected cells
b. certain fungi
c. certain types of bacteria
d. all viruses
Sol. Correct choice: (3)