Bank Of India Solved Paper Of General Awareness

Bank Of India Solved Paper Of General Awareness (held on 24-01-2010)

1. The President of the Palestine recently emphasized that his country will not resume peace talks until Israel fully halts settlement building in the—
(A) West Bank
(B) Haifa
(C) Gaza
(D) Tel-Aviv-Yafo
(E) Jerusalem
Ans : (A)

2. All the major world leaders gathered in Berlin in Nov. 2009 to mark the 20th anniversary of—
(A) European Union
(B) NATO
(C) Fall of Berlin Wall
(D) G-20
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. Now almost all major newspaper journals and magazines are printing research reports giving the analysis and/or the causes of the sub-prime crisis which gripped America and the world a few months back. Which of the following was/were amongst the common cause(s) of the same ?
(They were present in almost all the economies)
(1) The problem was that investors erroneously believed property prices were quite predictable and built a whole edifice of financial planning on the back of the American housing market.
(2) Credit rating agencies all over the world were not equipped to forecast the effect of sub-prime crisis on world economy. Agencies were over-confident and did not react in time.
(3) Neither USA nor other countries took a note of the crisis in time. In fact they ignored it for quite some time.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)

4. If you see a big hoarding at a prominent public place, the punch line of which says ‘We All Were Born Free’; ‘We All Have Equal Rights’, in all probability, the hoarding is put up by—
(A) National Commission for Farmers
(B) National Human Rights Commission
(C) Directorate of Income Tax
(D) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(E) Union Public Service Commission
Ans : (B)

5. Nowadays we frequently read news items about ‘Derivatives’ as used in the world of finance and money market. Which of the following statement(s) correctly describes what a derivative is and how it affects money/finance markets ?
(1) Derivatives enable individuals and companies to insure themselves against financial risk.
(2) Derivatives are like fixed deposits in a bank and are the safest way to invest one’s idle money lying in a bank.
(3) Derivatives are the financial instruments which were used in India even during the British Raj.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. Many a time we read in the newspapers that RBI has changed or revised a particular ratio/rate by a few basis points. What is basis point ?
(A) Ten per cent of one hundredth point
(B) One hundredth of 1%
(C) One hundredth of 10%
(D) Ten per cent of 1000
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. Which of the following issues cannot come under the purview of the functioning of the Human Rights Commission of a country ?
(A) Racial Discrimination
(B) Treatment to Prisoners of War
(C) Human Trafficking
(D) Child Abuse
(E) Climate Migration
Ans : (E)

8. A prominent international weekly sometime ago printed a caption on its cover page which read ‘Brazil Takes Off’. Other major newspapers/magazines also printed similar stories/articles in their publications at that time. Why have magazines/newspapers decided to talk about Brazil these days ?
(1) All major economies of the world have been taking time to recover from the recession but Brazil was one of those which was ‘Last in and First out’.
(2) Brazil is a member of BRIC but unlike China it is a democracy, unlike India, it has no hostile neighbours, no insurgents and unlike Russia it exports more oil and arms and treats foreign investors with more respect.
(3) Brazil is the world’s second largest booming economy.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)

9. Which of the following countries has conferred the honour of ‘Legion d’ honneur’ on Bharat Ratna Lata Mangeshkar ?
(A) Germany
(B) Norway
(C) Japan
(D) U.K.
(E) France
Ans : (E)

10. Expand the term NREGA—
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(B) National Rural Electrification Governing Agency
(C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(D) New Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

11. The Rajya Sabha has recently cleared the new poll bill. Which one of the following amendment(s) is/are made in this bill ?
It has proposed -
(A) Increasing the security deposits to more than double
(B) Restricting the publication of exit polls
(C) Ensuring speedy disposal of electoral disputes
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) All (A), (B) and (C)
Ans : (D)

12. The market in which long term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold is commonly known as—
(A) Commodities Exchange
(B) Capital Market
(C) Bull Market
(D) Bullion Market
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. Which one of the following was India’s top destination for exports during 2009 ?
(A) UAE
(B) USA
(C) Russia
(D) China
(E) Bangladesh
Ans : (A)

14. Which one of the following will be the first High Court in India, to implement the concept of ‘ecourts’ ?
(A) Delhi
(B) A.P.
(C) Chennai
(D) Kolkata
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. Amongst the following, which one of the following sectors provides the highest contribution in Industrial Production Index ?
(A) Crude Oil
(B) Petro Refinery Products
(C) Electricity
(D) Coal
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. Amongst the following sectors, which sector/segment has shown the highest per cent growth in the current fiscal ?
(A) Mining
(B) Manufacturing
(C) Electricity, gas and water supply
(D) Banking and Finance
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

17. As per the reports published in newspapers, India purchased around 200 tonnes of gold (almost half the quantity of gold put up for sale) in Sept. 2009. India purchased this gold from which of the following organizations ?
(A) World Bank
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) International Monetary Fund
(D) International Gold Council
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

18. World Trade Organisation (WTO)’s ministerial meeting was organized in which of the following cities recently ?
(A) Geneva
(B) Washington
(C) Paris
(D) Port of Spain
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. In which one of the following countries, was the recent Commonwealth Meet (CHOGAM) held ?
(A) Trinidad
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Jamaica
(E) U.K.
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following decisions taken by the RBI will promote the concept of financial inclusion in the country ?
(A) To appoint some additional entities as business correspondents
(B) To collect reasonable service charges from the customer in a transparent manner for providing the services.
(C) To ask the banks to open at least 50 new accounts daily in non serviced areas.
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

21. For recapitalization of Public Sector Banks, the World Bank has decided to provide funds to India. These funds will be made available in the form of—
(A) Soft Loan
(B) Term Loan
(C) Emergency aid
(D) Grants
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. Citizens of which one of he following age-groups (in years) are covered under the New Pension System (NPS) ?
(A) 18–50
(B) 21–55
(C) 25–55
(D) 18–60
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

23. Which one of the following is the objective of the flagship scheme ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana’ (RSBY) ?
(A) To provide life insurance cover to rural households
(B) To provide health insurance cover to rural households
(C) To provide both life and health insurance cover to rural household
(D) To provide life and health insurance covers only to people living below poverty line
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

24. Which one of the following had set up the N. R. Narayana Murthy Committee on issues relating to Corporate Governance ?
(A) SEBI
(B) RBI
(C) CII
(D) Ministry of Finance, GOI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. The proceeds of the disinvestment of profitable public sector units will be used for which of the following purposes ?
(A) Expansion of existing capacity of PSEs
(B) Modernisation of PSEs
(C) Opening of new PSEs
(D) Meeting the expenditure for various social sector schemes
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Which one of the following is the target fixed for fiscal deficit in the year 2010-2011 ?
(A) 3•5%
(B) 4•0%
(C) 5•5%
(D) 5•0%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. Which one of the following companies is the largest producer of natural gas in the country ?
(A) ONGC
(B) OIL
(C) Cairn India
(D) RIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Which one of the following states has sought a package of Rs. 500 crores ($ 100 million) for its Rural Poverty Reduction Programme ?
(A) M.P.
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) A.P.
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

29. Chinese objections have stalled the road work at the village of Demchok, on the Indian side of the line of control. In which one of the following states is this village located ?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

30. Constitutionally, which one of the following can levy Service Tax ?
(A) Union Govt. only
(B) State Govt. only
(C) Union Territory Govt. only
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

31. In the proposed low cost pension scheme, which one of the following has been made responsible for maintaining of the records of pension account of an individual ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) National Securities Depositories Ltd. (NSDL)
(C) Stock Holding Corporation of India
(D) RBI
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

32. Which one of the following is/are implication(s) of large inflow of foreign exchange into the country ?
1. It makes monetary management difficult for RBI.
2. It creates money supply, asset bubbles and inflation.
3. It weakens the competitiveness of Indian exports.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

33. The Central Banks of which one of the following countries has offered $ 115 billion emergency credit to support its economy hit by falling prices and also to strengthen its currency ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Japan
(C) U.K.
(D) USA
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

34. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat ?
(A) The Golden Gate
(B) A House for Mr. Biswas
(C) 2 States
(D) White Tiger
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. NTPC Ltd. is in the process of exploring opportunities to source coal from overseas. In which one of the following countries has the NTPC identified two new coal mines ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Australia
(C) South Korea
(D) Indonesia
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. Which of the following organizations has raised its loan amount to India to make it US $ 7 billion in 2009-10 fiscal ?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) World Bank
(D) European Union
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. Who amongst the following cricket players became the first to score 17000 runs in One Day Internationals ?
(A) Rahul Dravid
(B) Stephen Fleming
(C) Ricky Ponting
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

38. The Govt. of India has decided to use the Core Banking System of banks to ensure proper usage of funds provided for which of its following programmes ?
(A) Literacy Mission
(B) Pradhanmantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(C) National Health Mission
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. Famous Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for exemplary work in the field of—
(A) Sports
(B) Literature
(C) Science & Technology
(D) Social Service
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

40. The Reverse Mortgage Scheme was launched by some organizations a few years back. This was done to help which of the following sections of society ?
(A) Beneficiaries of the NREGA
(B) People living Below Poverty Line
(C) Youngsters
(D) Senior Citizens
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

41. The organization of the South East Asian countries is known as—
(A) OPEC
(B) ASEAN
(C) NATO
(D) UNCTAD
(E) SAARC
Ans : (B)

42. ‘Miss Earth 2009’ title has been conferred upon—
(A) Alejandra Pedrajas
(B) Sandra Saifert
(C) Jessica Barboza
(D) Larissa Ramos
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

43. Which of the following countries became the third largest producer of Steel in the world in 2009 ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Japan
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

44. The Foreign Trade policy is announced recently by the Govt. of India. Which of the following ministries/agencies announce the same ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Export Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)
(C) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(D) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

45. Irina Bokova has taken over as the Chief of the—
(A) ILO
(B) UNICEF
(C) OPEC
(D) UNO
(E) UNESCO
Ans : (E)

46. Dorjee Khandu has taken over as the Chief Minister of—
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Assam
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Football ?
(A) Caddy
(B) Cutback
(C) Mid-on
(D) Love
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

48. Which of the following is considered a Non Food Crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Bajra
(D) Rice
(E) Jute
Ans : (E)

49. Who amongst the following was the Prime Minister of Nepal immediately prior to Madhav Kumar Nepal ?
(A) Ram Baran Yadav
(B) Pushpakamal Dahal
(C) Girija Prasad Koirala
(D) Mahendra Kumar Suryavanshi
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

50. The 10th India-European Summit was held in New Delhi in November 2009. Who amongst the following represented India and also chaired the same ?
(A) S. M. Krishna
(B) Pratibha Patil
(C) Pranab Mukherjee
(D) Manmohan Singh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Biology Sample Questions

Q. 1. Biological organisation starts with:
a. Atomic level
b. Submicroscopic molecular level
c. Cellular level
d. Organismic level
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 2. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and:
a. calcium and phosphorous
b. phosphorus and sulphur
c. sulphur and magnesium
d. magnesium and sodium
Sol. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 3. Which one of the following is an example of negative feed back loop in humans?
a. Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot.
b. Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold.
c. Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles in to the eye
d. Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food.
Sol. When the set point of hypothalamus is disturbed by high temperature, it stimulates vasodilation and sweating while in low temperature there is vasoconstriction and shivering. Correct choice: 2

Q. 4. What is common to whale, seal and shark?
a. Homoiothermy
b. Seasonal migration]
c. Thick subcutaneous fat
d. Convergent evolution
Sol. Shark is poikilothermous. All three species show adaptations for aquatic life while these are not closely related. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 5. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
a. Phospholipids
b. Cholesterol
c. Glycolipids
d. Proline
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 6. Select the wrong statement from the following:
a. The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria.
b. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain and inner and an outer membrane
c. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane
d. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 7. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the formation of:
a. Nucleic acids
b. ATP is small stepwise units
c. ATP in one large oxidation reaction
d. Sugars
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 8. If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same value, the following is most likely to occur:
a. a skewed curve
b. a normal distribution
c. a bi-modal distribution
d. a T -shaped curve
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 9. Which one of the following is a slime mould?
a. Anabaena
b. Rhizopus
c. Physarum
d. Thiobacillus
Sol. Physarum is an acellular slime mould. Correct choice: (3)

Q.10. For a critical study of secondary growth in plants, which one of the following pairs is suitable?
a. Wheat and maiden hair fern
b. Sugarcane and sunflower
c. Teak and pine
d. Deodar and fern
Sol. Secondary growth occurs in gymnosperms and dicots. Correct choice: (3)

Q.11. Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma is wrong?
a. They cause disease in plants
b. They are also called PPLO
c. They are pleomorphic
d. They are sensitive to penicillin
Sol. Mycoplasma is not sensitive to penicillin due to absence of cell wall. Correct choice: (4)

Q.12. In the prothallus of vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different times. As a result:
a. self fertilization is prevented
b. there is no change in success rate of fertilization
c. there is high degree of sterility
d. one can conclude that the plant is apomictic
Sol. In vascular cryptogam i.e. in pteridophytes gametophyte is monoecious but protandrous to avoid self fertilization. Correct choice: (1)

Q.13. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they:
a. have same number of chromosomes
b. can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds
c. have more than 90 per cent similar genes
d. look similar and possess identical secondary metabolities.
Sol. The members of a species are inter-fertile and produce fertile offsprings. Correct choice: (2)

Q.14. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose?
a. Chemical composition of the cell wall
b. Types of pigments present in the cell
c. Nature of stored food materials in the cell
d. Structural organization of thallus.
Sol. The various algae are classified mainly on the types of pigments present in their cells. Correct choice: (2)

Q.15. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets?
a. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
b. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
c. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
d. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
Sol. The male gametes of bryophytes are biflagellete, and those of pteriodophytes are multiflagellate, except Selaginella having biflagellate gametes. The male gametes of gymnosperms are non motile except those of Cycas having multiciliate gametes. Correct choice: (1)

Q.16. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents:
a. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
b. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms formed
c. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
d. an opening in the mega gametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg.
Sol. In gymnosperms, below micropylar beak some of the cells of nucellus of ovule disintigerate to form pollen chamber. Correct choice: (3)

Q.17. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by:
a. peristome teeth
b. elaters
c. indusium
d. calyptra
Sol. In some liverworts like Marchantia spore dispersal is due to hydrochasy and is aided by elaters. Correct choice: (2)

Q.18. Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes?
a. Morchella and Mushrooms
b. Birds’ nest fungi and Pufballs
c. Pufballs and Claviceps
d. Peziza and Stink horns
Sol. Bird’s nest fungi – Cyathus, Pufballs – Lycoperdon, Both belong to the class Basidiomycetes. Correct choice: (3)

Q.19. ICBN stands for:
a. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
b. Indian Congress of Biological Names
c. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
d. International Congress of Biological Names
Sol. ICBN is one of the codes of nomenclature. It stands for International Code of Botanical Nomenclature. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 20. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of:
a. Claviceps
b. Phytophthora
c. Uncinula
d. Ustilago
Sol. Ergot of rye is caused by Claviceps purpurea. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 21. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed:
a. Convergent evolution
b. Divergent evolution
c. Microevolution
d. Co-evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 22. Adaptive radiation refers to:
a. Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
b. Adaptations due to Geographical isolation
c. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
d. Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 23. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for:
a. growth the movement
b. responsiveness to touch
c. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
d. reproduction
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 24. The Finches of Galapogas islands provide an evidence in favour of:
a. Biogeographical Evolution
b. Special Creation
c. Evolution due to Mutation
d. Retrogressive Evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 25. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is:
a. Random creation of new species
b. No change in the isolation faunax
c. Preventing Speciation
d. Speciation through reproductive isolation
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 26. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that:
a. Melanism is a pollution-generated feature
b. The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
c. The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area
d. The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area.
Sol. It is an example of directional selection. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 27. The concept of chemical evolution is based on:
a. Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals
b. Crystallization of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
c. Interaction of water, air and clay under
d. Effect of solar radiation of chemicals
Sol. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 28. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 CC in:
a. Homo habilis
b. Homo neanderthalensis
c. Homo erectus
d. Ramapithecus
Sol. Homo habilis had a cranial capacity in the range of 680-720 c.c. & that of Homo erectus erectus 775-990 c.c, Homo erectus pekinensis 915-1200 c.c., Homo neanderthalensis 1300-1600 c.c. Correct choice: (c)

Q. 29. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
a. Crocodile
b. Sea Urchin
c. Obelia
d. Lemur
-Chambered heart
- Parapodia
– Metagenesis
– Thecodont
(1) Only A and B
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only A and D
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 30. Select the correct statement from the following:
a. Mutations are random and directional
b. Darwinian variations are small and directionless
c. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
d. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrate.
Sol. It explains natural selection. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 31. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?
a. Ventral heart
b. Post-anal tail
c. Ventral Central nervous system
d. Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo
- Scorpion
- Octopus
– Leech
– Chamaeleon
Sol. Scorpion has dorsal heart. Post-anal tail is found only in chordates. Pharyngeal gill slits are present in the embryo of chameleon. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 32. What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?
a. Ovoparity
b. Homoiothermy
c. Toothless jaws
d. Functional post -anal tail
Sol. Only birds & mammals are homoiothermous. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 33. What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach and Silver fish?
a. They all belong to the same phylum
b. They all have jointed paired appendages
c. They all possess dorsal heart
d. None of them is aquatic
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 34. Which one of the following statement is correct?
a. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
b. Stem cells are specialized cells
c. There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
d. All plant and animal cells are totipotent.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 35. “Foolish Seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of:
a. IAA
b. GA
c. ABA
d. 2, 4 – D
Sol. Foolish seeding disease (Bakane disease) of rice is due to a fungus Giberella fujikuroi. Yabuta and Sumuki obtained achemical from the fungus and called gibbrellic acid. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 36. Passage cells are thin- walled cells found in:
a. central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary.
b. endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle.
c. phloem elements that serve as entry points for substances for transport to other plant parts.
d. testa of seed to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination.
Sol. Passage cells also called transfusion tissue are found in the endodermis meant for rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 37. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is:
a. Quinone
b. Cytochrome
c. Iron-sulphur protein
d. Ferredoxin.
Sol. The first acceptor of electros from an excited chlorophyll is quinone. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 38. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is:
a. succinate dehydrogenase
b. lactate dehydrogenase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
d. malate dehydrogenase
Sol. Succinate dehydrogenase is a common enzyme for TCA and ETC. It is located on inner mitochondrial membrane. Rest of the TCA enzymes are present in mitochondrial matrix. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 39. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of phytochrome is:
a. 620 nm
b. 640 nm
c. 680 nm
d. 720 nm
Sol. The Pr form of phytochrome receives red light (600-680 nm) and changes into Pfr. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 40. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is type of:
a. Autonomic movement of growth
b. Autonomic movement of locomotion
c. Autonomic movement of variation
d. Paratonic movement of growth.
Sol. Opening of floral bud into flowers, is due to epinasty, a type of autonomic movement of growth. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 41. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
a. IAA – Cell wall elongation
b. Abscissic Acid – Stomatal closure
c. Gibberellic Acid – Leaf fall
d. Cytokinin – Cell division
Sol. Leaf fall is due to interaction of auxin and ethylene. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 42. One gene – one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in:
a. Diploccus pneumoniae
b. Neurospora crassa
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Escherichia Coli
Sol. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was given by Beadle and Tatum in red mould (Neurospora crassa). Correct choice: (2)

Q. 43. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of:
a. Microspore mother cell
b. Microspore
c. Generative cell
d. Vegetative cell
Sol. During the development of male gametophyte first of all two cells – generative cell and tube nucleus are formed from a pollen. This twocelled stage is called pollen grain. Finally the generative cell divides to form 2-male gametes. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 44. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure – 7atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be:
a. Movement of water of Cell A to B
b. Movement of water from Cell B to A
c. No movement of water
d. Equilibrium between the two
Sol. The direction of movement of water is from low to high DPD. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 45. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of:
a. Epidermis
b. Mesophyll
c. Bundle Sheath
d. Phloem
Sol. In C4 plants, C4 cycle occurs in mesophyll cells and C3 cycle in bundle sheath cells. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 46. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing microorganism?
a. Cicer arietinum
b. Casuarina equisetifolia
c. Crotalaria juncea
d. Cycas revolute
Sol. The filamentous nitrogen – fixing microorganism like Frankia occurs in root-nodules of non-leguminous plants like Casuarina and Alnus. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 47. Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?
a. Pollen grain
b. Microspore mother cell
c. Male gamete
d. Egg
Sol. The microspore mother cells develops an internal layer of callose which breaks the plasmodesmatal connections among themselves. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 48. Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant growth?
a. Ca
b. Mn
c. Zn
d. Cu
Sol. Calcium is an essential macronutrient for plant growth. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 49. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?
a. Haemocytes
b. Serum albumins
c. Serum globulins
d. Fibrinogen in the plasma
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 50. Which one of the following is a fat -soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
a. Calciferol – Pellagra
b. Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
c. Retinol – Xerophthalmia
d. Cobalamine – Beri-beri
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 51. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon-dioxide aerobically?
a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Unstriated muscle cells
d. Liver cells
Sol. RBCs do not have mitochondria & thus can respire only anaerobically. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 52. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of:
a. lower levels of adrenalin / noradrenalin in its blood
b. higher levels of thyroxin
c. higher levels of cortisone
d. lower levels of blood testosterone
Sol. The bullock is castrated and therefore secretion of testosterone is not adequate. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 53. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of:
a. FSH only
b. LH only
c. Combination of FSH and LH
d. Combination of estrogen and progesterone
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 54. In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?
a. Cranial nerves
b. Floating ribs
c. Collar bones
d. Salivary glands
- 10 pairs
- 2 pairs
– 3 pairs
–1 pair
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 55. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently?
a. Hyaline cartilage
b. Ciliated epithelium
c. Thrombocytes
d. Tendon
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 56. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?
a. Whole blood from pulmonary vein
b. Blood plasma
c. Blood serum
d. Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
Sol. Blood serum does not contain fibrinogen and few other clotting factors, thus it will not coagulate. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 57. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action?
a. Gastrin
b. Thyroxin
c. Adrenaline
d. Glucagon
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 58. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have:
a. less urea in his urine
b. more sodium in his urine
c. less amino acids in his urine
d. more glucose in his blood.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 59. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cell?
a. Nucleus and mitochondria
b. Perikaryon and dendrites
c. Vacuoles and fibers
d. Flagellum and medullary sheath
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q.60. Which part of ovary in mam mals acts as an endocrine gland after evolution?
a. Vitelline membrane
b. Graafian follicle
c. Stroma
d. Germinal epithelium
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 61. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
a. First positive, then negative and again back to positive
b. First negative, then positive and again back to negative
c. First positive, then negative and continue to be negative
d. First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 62. A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorous metabolism in his body. Which one of the following glands may not be functioning properly?
a. Thyroid
b. Parathyroid
c. Parotid
d. Pancreas
Sol. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 63. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned:
a. Rann of Kutch
b. Dachigam National Park
c. Sunderbans
d. Periyar
- Wild Ass
- Snow Leopard
–Bengal Tiger
–Elephant
Sol. Dachigam National Park is for the conservation of Hangul. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 64. In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage (S), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order?
a. S < DE < PE < SE
b. SE < S < PE < DE
c. SE < PE < S < DE
d. PE < S < SE < DE
Sol. BOD of distillery effluent is 40,000 mg / l and that of paper mill effluent and sewage is 190 mg/l and 30 mg/l, respectively. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 65. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?
a. Temperate deciduous forest
b. Tropical rain forest
c. Tropical deciduous forest
d. Temperate evergreen forest
Sol. Tropical rain forest has highest annual net primary productivity (9000 K cal / m 2 / yr). Correct Choice: (2)

Q. 66. Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of biodiesel in the Indian countryside?
a. Pongamia
b. Euphorbia
c. Beetroot
d. Sugarcane
Sol. Pongamia, Jatropa, Euphorbia are petrocrops. However, in the Indian countryside, Pongamia (Kanjar) is being utilized as a source of biodiesel. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 67. In a coal fires power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of:
a. CO
b. SO2
c. NOX
d. SPM
Sol. Electrostatic precipitators control emission of suspended particle matter (SPM). Correct choice: (4)

Q. 68. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?
a. Sewage fungus
b. Sludge-worms
c. Blood-worms
d. Stone flies
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 69. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in:
a. Predation on one another
b. Mutualism
c. Intra specific competition
d. Inter specific competition
Sol. Intra-specific competition occurs between the members of the same species. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 70. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of:
a. Ecosystem
b. Biotic community
c. Population
d. Landscape
Sol. Age structure is one of the characteristics of population. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 71. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in India?
a. Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
b. Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
c. Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
d. Water hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria
Sol. Lantana camara and Eicchornia czassipes (water hyacinth) are exotic species. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 72. One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of:
a. Nepenthes
b. Podophyllum
c. Ocimum
d. Garlic
Sol. Podophyllum hexandrum – : (Papri), gives a drug from its rhizome; besides being stimulant and purgative and has destructive action on cancerous tissues. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 73. A genetically engineered micro-organism used successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of:
a. Bacillus
b. Pseudomonas
c. Trichoderma
d. Xanthomonas
Sol. Pseudomonas putida (superbug) developed by genetic engineering by Anand Mohan Chakravorty is used to control oil spills. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 74. A sequential expression of a set of human genes occurs when a steroid molecule binds to the:
a. Ribosome
b. Transfer RNA
c. Messenger RNA
d. DNA sequence
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 75. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth:
a. polymerize in the direction and explain DNA replication
b. result in transcription
c. polymerize in the direction and forms replication fork
d. prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
Sol. Replication occurs always in direction. Okazaki fragments, synthesized on DNA template, join to form lagging strand which grows in direction. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 76. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are:
a. n = 21 and x = 7
b. n = 7 and x = 21
c. n = 21 and x = 21
d. n = 21 and x = 14
Sol. The basic number (x) of wheat is 7. Thus the 6x = 2n = 42 and n = 21. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 77. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by:
a. Anticodon
b. RNA polymerase
c. Ribosome
d. Transcription factor
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 78. Telomere repetitive DNA sequence control the function of eukaryote chromosomes because they:
a. prevent chromosome loss
b. act as replicons
c. are RNA transcription initiator
d. help chromosome pairing
Sol. Telomerase seal the ends of the chromosomes. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 79. Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of:
a. codominance
b. chromosomal aberration
c. point mutation
d. polygenic inheritance
Sol. Inheritance of skin colour in human is controlled by three genes, A, B and C. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 80. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by:
a. crossing of one F1progeny with male parent
b. crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent
c. crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent
d. studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies.
Sol. To find the genotype of hybrid, it is test crossed. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 81. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle – like structure. What is it’s DNA-binding sequence?
a. TATA
b. TTAA
c. AATT
d. CACC
Sol. The DNA binding sequence for RNA polymerase is called TATA box. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 82. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will show:
a. Higher number of the parental types.
b. Higher number of the recombinant types.
c. Segregation in the expected 9: 3: 3: 1 ratio.
d. Segregation in 3:1 ratio.
Sol. When the linked genes are situated quite close, the chances of crossing over are highly reduced. Due to this, large number of parental gametes are formed and only few recombinant gametes are formed. This results in higher number of parental types in F2 generation as compared to recombinants. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 83. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by:
a. Inducing mutations.
b. Bombarding the seeds with DNA.
c. Crossing of two inbred parental lines.
d. Harvesting seeds from the most productive plants.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 84. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with:
a. Deletion of genes
b. Developmental mutations
c. Differential expression of genes
d. Lethal mutations
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 85. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation?
a. 3 : 1
b. 50 : 50
c. 9 : 1
d. 1 : 3
Sol. This is a monohybrid test cross. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 86. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?
a. Through elimination of repetitive DNA.
b. Deletion of non-essential genes.
c. Super-coiling in nucleosomes.
d. DNAse digestion.
Sol. The nucleosome model explains the packaging of histone proteins and DNA in the chromatin material which forms the chromosome. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 87. In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and:
a. from this upto eight identical twins can be produced
b. the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of others cows
c. in the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted into the womb other cows.
d. in the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for further development in culture media.
Sol. As per the experiment performed by the scientist from Japan. Correct choice: (3)

Q. 88. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers.
b. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.
c. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants.
d. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and potassium for plant nutrition in soil.
Sol. The Agricultural run off contains high concentration of chemical fertilizers. Which is discharge in near by lakes causes nutrient enrichment of lakes called eutrophication. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 89. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?
a. The population of its predators increases enormously.
b. S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.
c. The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season.
d. Its population growth curve is of J-type.
Sol. A population which grows exponentially and crashes suddenly exhibits J-type growth curve. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 90. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are:
a. semiconservative
b. parallel
c. discontinuous
d. antiparallel
Sol. The two chains in a dsDNA run in opposite direction one while other in opposite direction. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 91. A plant requires magnesium for:
a. Cell wall development
b. Holdin g cells together
c. Protein synthesis
d. Chlorophyll synthesis

Q. 92. Probiotics are:
a. Live microbial food supplement
b. Safe antibiotics
c. Cancer inducing microbes
d. New kind of food allergens
Sol. Live microbial food supplements are called probiotics (e.g., curd). Correct choice: (1)

Q. 93. Bowman’s glands are located in the:
a. olfactory epithelium of our nose
b. proximal end of uriniferous tubules
c. anterior pituitary
d. female reproductive system of cockroach
Sol. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 94. Increased asthamatic attacks in certain seasons are related to:
a. Low temperature
b. Hot and humid environment
c. Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
d. Inhalation of seasonal pollen
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 95. A human male produces sperms with genotypes AB, Ab, aB and ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?
a. AABB
b. AaBb
c. AaBB
d. AABb
Sol. The formula for gamete formation is 2n where n stands for number of heterozygous pairs. AaBb has 2 heterozygous pairs so it will form 4 types of gametes. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 96. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
a. Coliforms
b. Methanogens
c. Yeast
d. Streptomycetes - Vinegar
-Gobar gas
–Ethanol
–Antibiotic
Sol. Coliforms are bacteria found in colon e.g. E. coli. For the preparation of vinegar Acetobacter aceti is employed. Correct choice: (1)

Q. 97. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Bombyx mori
b. Pila globosa
c. Apis indica
d. Kenia lacca -silk
-pearl
–honey
–lac
Sol. Pinctada vulgaris is a bivalve from which pearl is obtained. Correct choice: (2)

Q. 98. Which one of the following is viral disease of poultry?
a. Pasteurellosis
b. Salmonellosis
c. Coryza
d. New Castle disease
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 99. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography?
a. 45 – 70 MHz
b. 30 – 45 MHz
c. 15 – 30 MHz
d. 1 – 15 MHz
Sol. Correct choice: (4)

Q. 100. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys:
a. most virus-infected cells
b. certain fungi
c. certain types of bacteria
d. all viruses
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

NMAT General Knowledge

NMAT General Knowledge Questions

Q. Gulliver’s Travels was written by-
Ans Gulliver’s Travels, (1726, amended 1735), officially Travels into Several Remote Nations of the World, is a novel by Jonathan Swift that is both a satire on human nature and a parody of the “travellers’ tales” literary sub-genre.

Q. Match the following?
Ans Bacterial diseases- Tuberculosis Viral diseases- Polio, Poliomyelitis Protozoan diseases- Malaria Fungal diseases- Ringworm

Q. Match the following-
Ans. Paper- Cai Lun Safety Pin- William Hurst Fountain Pen- L.E Waterman Safety Razor- King Camp Gillette or Kampfe Brothers

Q. Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement?
Ans. CEPA will strengthen the economic ties between the two countries by including services in the free trade between the two countries.

Q. Prasar Bharati Bill?
Ans. Prasar Bharati is a statutory autonomous body established under the Prasar Bharati Act. The Board came into existence from 23.11.1997. The Prasar Bharati is the Public Service broadcaster of the country. The objective of public service broadcasting is to be achieved though All India Radio and Doordarshan which earlier were working as independent media units under the Ministry of I&B.

Q. Where is the head office of National Statistical Commission?
Ans. New Delhi

Q. Garib Nawaz Express runs between….
Ans. Garib Nawaz Express, linking the pilgrim towns of Ajmer and Pushkar in Rajasthan with coastal southern India, would start running between Yashwantpur (Banglore) in Karnataka and Ajmer on a weekly basis from August 11.

Q. Which among the followings books does Bill Gates write?
Ans. Business at the speed of thought.

Q. Which of the following companies won the prestigious award of “Best in Corporate Governance” (Golden Peacock Award) for the year 2006?
Ans. Private sector, Reliance Energy and Mahindra and Mahindra have bagged the Golden Peacock Corporate Governance Award for 2006. From the public sector, Hindustan Petroleum Corp Ltd (HPCL) and Oil and Natural Gas Corp (ONGC) were adjudged the winner for this year.

Q. In which year Cricket World Cup will be held in India
Ans. The 2011 Cricket World Cup will be the tenth time this tournament has been held, and will be held in the four Asian Test cricket playing countries Bangladesh, India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

Q. Planning Commission is an …
Ans. Planning Commission is an Advisory body. The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the Planning Commission, which works under the overall guidance of the National Development Council. The Deputy Chairman and the full time Members of the Commission, as a composite body, provide advice and guidance to the subjectDivisions for the formulation of Five Year Plans, Annual Plans, State Plans, Monitoring Plan Programmes, Projects and Schemes.

Q. G-8 members-
Ans. G-8 Members are: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Russia, United Kingdom and United States of America. G-8 Summit 2006 held at St Petersburg, Russia.

Q. Which of the following is not a financial institution?
a. IDBI
b. LIC
c. ICICI
d. IIPA
Ans. (d) choice is the answer IIPA is not a financial institution

Q. The miniature painting of music originated from which state?
Ans. The miniature painting of music belongs to Rajasthan.

Q. Who among the benefited at the time of inflation?
Ans. Debtors

Q. Which of the following can declare an industrial unit sick.
Ans. BIFR- Board for Industrial & Financial Reconstruction deals with this issue.

Q. What is the defination of Zero hour?
Ans. Zero Hour denotes the time immediately following the Question hour in both Houses of Parliament. It starts at 12 noon. It came to be called an ‘Hour’ also because very often it continued for one full hour, until the House rose for lunch at 1 p.m. However, the duration of the Zero Hour has varied over the years. It is not possible to predict what kind of matters might be raised during Zero Hour, as there is no mention of any “Zero Hour” in the rules of the Parliament. It is the press who coined the term “Zero Hour” during the early 1960s, when the practice of raising urgent matters of public importance without prior notice developed.

Q. Election Commission does not conducts election for.
Ans. Prime Minister.

Q. Lotteries organized by government of the state comes under-
Ans. State List.

Q. Match the following-
Ans. a. Sabarigiri- hydroelectric project
b. Idukki- Thermal power station

Q. Har Gobind Khorana won the Nobel for the…
Ans. First synthesis of a gene.

Q. Which of the following states benefited most from the Konkan Railway?
Ans. Maharashtra, Karnataka and Goa.

Q. ELISA test is done for-
Ans. AIDS

Q. Which of the following is a set of official language of UNO?
Ans. The Organization uses six official languages in its intergovernmental meetings and documents, Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish; the Secretariat uses two working languages, English and French.

Q. Match the following-
Ans. a. Distillation- is a method of separation of substances based on differences in their volatilities.
b. Galvanization- zinc is to coating of zinc over iron or steel

Q. Who among the following is not awarded Bharat Ratna Posthumously?
Ans. Right choice is Madan Mohan Malviya, he never won Bharat Ratna.

Q. Which of the following states initiated Kalasa-Banduri drinking water project?
Ans. Karnataka.

Q. Which of the following state pin code can probably start with 6.
Ans. Kerela.

ONGC Graduate Trainee General Awareness Sample Questions

1. Women20-20 world Championship was Won By
(A)Australia
(B)England
(C)Pakistan
(D) India

2. Who is the Chairperson of Identification Authority of India (UIA)?
(A) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(B) Nandan Nilekani
(C) B. Shreedharan
(D) M. N. Buch

3. Who won the 2009 Wimbledon ?
(A) Pete Samptas
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Roger Federer
(d) John McEnroe

4. Which country has the largest Rail Network in the World?
(A)India
(B) U. K.
(C)China
(D) U.S.A.

5. Who is the Union Law Minister of India?
(A) Sharad Pawar
(B) Kapil Sibbal
(C) Verrappa Moily
(D) Hansraj Bharadwaj

6. The Birthday of Late Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, ‘President of India’, is celebrated as?
(A)Lawyer’s Day
(B)Teacher’s Day
(C) Children’s Day
(D)Father’s Day

7. Tirupati is in?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnatalca
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) MP

8. Kanha National Park is situated in which State ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnatalca
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) MP

9. River Narmada originates from?
(A) Bhedaghat
(B) Amarkantak
(C) Dindori
(D) Allahabad

10. Gandhiji started Dandi March in 1930
(A) Against atrocities committed on Harijarts
(B) Against imposition of Salt Tax
(C) Against the commencement of Communal Riot
(D) Against prohibition on Indian’s participating in elections

11. Who is the author of “My Experiments with Truth”?
(A)Nehru
(B) Tagore
(C) Gandhi
(D) Jinnah

12. NASA refers to
(A) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
(B) North Atlantic Space Agency
(C) North Airbase and Space Agency
(D) None of the above

13. I.S.O. 9000 is a?
(A) Quality Standard Mark
(B) Space Project
(C) Trade Technique
(d) None of these

14. Who among the following made a film on Mahatma Gandhi?
(A) Aparna Sen
(B) ShyamBenegal
(C) James Ivory
(d) Richard Attenborough

15. ‘Law Day’ is observed on
(A) 26th January
(B) 15th August
(C) 26th May
(d) 26th November

16. Which is the longest sea bridge in the country?
(A) Vidyasagar Sew, Kolkata
(B) Bandra-Worli Sea Link,Mumbai
(C) Bhakra-Nangal Project
(D) None of these

17. Dr. Rajendra Pachauri is a/an?
(A) Banker
(B) Industrialist
(C) Environmentalist
(D) Scientist

18. Who is the author of ‘Discovery of India’?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Indira Gandhi

19. D.N.A. refers to?
(A)Di-oxyribo Nucleic Acid
(B)Di-oxide Nucleic Acid
(C)Different Nucleic Acid
(D) None of these.

20. S.M.S. is?
(A)Short Messaging Sequence
(B)Short Messaging Service
(C)Short Manageable Service
(D)Short and Medium Service

21. Padma Bhushan Award is?
(A) Gallantry Award
(B) Bravery Award
(C) Civilian Award
(d), Literary Award

22. Which city is known as the ‘City of Joy’?
(A) Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C)Kolkata
(D) Chennai

23. Who won the ASHES Cricket Test Series held in year 2009?
(A)Australia
(B)England
(C)Pakistan
(D) None of these

24. Who appoints a Judge of a High Court?
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Minister
(C) President of i
(D) Chief Justice of India

25. Which of these animals is not shown in the National Emblem of India?
(A)Lion
(B) Horse
(C)Bull
(D) Elephant

26. Which is the Mother State of Chhattisgarh?
(A) Bihar
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh

27. Who won the men’s 100 m. final race at the recently held 2009 IAAF Athletics World Championship in Berlin?
(A) Tyson Gay of America
(B) Usain Bolt of Jamaica
(C) Asafa Powell of Jamaica
(D) Yang Yon Eun of South Korea

28. The Finance Minister has pro posed replacement of the Income Tax Act by?
(A) The Finance Act, 2008
(B) The Direct Tax Act
(C) The Indian Taxation Code
(D) The Direct Taxes Code
(D) Indore

29. The Earth rotates around an axis pointing towards
(A) the moon
(B) the pole star
(C) the sun
(D) Venus

30. Which one of the following aptly describes the generalised shape of the continents?
(A)Circular
(B) Hexagonal
(C)Rectangular
(D) Triangular

31.An Air India plane recently crashed at …….. Airport
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Mangalore
(D) Srinagar

32.Vikas Krishnan was in news Recently. He is a ?
(A) Boxer
(B) Writer
(C)Music Director
(D) Head of VIKAS NGO

33. During 1994-2007 grean house gas Emissions in India Fell By
(A) 25 percent
(B) 30 percent
(C) 35 percent
(D) 40 percent

34.First European Country to Ban Burqua is ?
(A) Belgium
(B) France
(C) UK
(D) Germany

Answers::

1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-C, 6-B, 7-A, 8-D, 9-B, 10-B, 11-C, 12-A, 13-A, 14-D, 15-D, 16-B, 17-C, 18-A, 19-A, 20-B, 21-C, 22-C, 23-B, 4-C, 25-D, 26-D, 27-B, 28 -D, 29-B, 30-D, 31-C, 32-A, 33-B, 34-A

General Awareness Questions For Bank PO Examinations

1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)

2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently ?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)

6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (E)

10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0·7 per cent to 1·5 per cent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)

12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)

13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Ans : (E)

14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently. The project is setup / developed in ……….
(A) Singur
(B) Nandigram
(C) Salboni
(D) Malda
(E) Joynagar
Ans : (C)

15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of energy with India ?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Ans : (A)

17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Ans : (D)

18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ……….
(A) Fiji
(B) Maldives
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008 ?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Martti Ahtisaari
(C) Yoichiro Nambu
(D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following commissions in their States as early as possible ?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the liquidity crunch in the country ?
(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the following dies recently ?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Ans : (B)

23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people by

2010-11 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)

24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Exile’ ?
(A) B. G. Verghese
(B) Philip Roth
(C) Aravind Adiga
(D) Navtej Saran
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Namesake’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Arun Bhagat
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
Ans : (E)

28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as ‘Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’ ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (C)

29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea
(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Ans : (A)

31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Ans : (D)

32. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ……….
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf
(E) Tennis
Ans : (B)

33. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ……….
(A) Portblair
(B) Hassan
(C) Tirupati
(D) Kochi
(E) Sri Harikota
Ans : (E)

34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ……….
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Goa
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kochi
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the followiing diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) AIDS
(D) Polio
(E) Cancer
Ans : (E)

36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ ?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana Kuznetsova ?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present ?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority Sector is advance ?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ……….
(A) Literacy Work
(B) Social Service
(C) Coaching in Sports
(D) Journalism
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

INDIAN POLITY OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. Indian Republic is not the product of—
(A) Political Revolution
(B) Discussion
(C) Made by a body of eminent representatives of the people
(D) All the above

2. For the first time, British Parliament enacted which laws for the British Government to govern in India—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1857
(B) Govt. of India Act 1858
(C) Govt. of India Act 1891
(D) Govt. of India Act 1888

3. The British Secretary of the State governed India through which Institution—
(A) Executive Council
(B) Parliament
(C) Governor assisted by an Executive Council
(D) Governor General appointed by an Executive Council

4. Under the British Rule in India, Governor General was responsible to—
(A) Secretary of India
(B) Secretary of Britain
(C) Secretary of State
(D) None of the above

5. Morely-Minto reform is associated with which Act—
(A) Indian Council Act 1856
(B) Indian Council Act 1909
(C) Indian Council Act 1908
(D) Indian Council Act 1912

6. During the British rule, which community got separate representation from which Act—
(A) Christian Community & Indian Council Act 1909
(B) Buddhist Community & Indian Council Act 1907
(C) Muslim Community & Indian Council Act 1909
(D) All the above

7. During the British period, under which Act election was introduced in India—
(A) Indian Council Act 1913
(B) Indian Council Act 1909
(C) Indian Council Act 1906
(D) Indian Council Act 1907

8. Montagu-Chelmsford report is associated with which Govt of India Act—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1918
(B) Govt. of India Act 1920
(C) Govt. of India Act 1930
(D) Govt. of India Act 1919

9. When was the Indian National Congress established—
(A) 1888
(B) 1885
(C) 1889
(D) 1890

10. Under the British Rule when ‘Dyarchy Governing System’ was introduced for the first time—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1919
(B) Govt. of India Act 1929
(C) Govt. of India Act 1925
(D) Govt. of India Act 1935

11. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, which communities were provided separate representation in the Electorate system—
(A) Sikh, Europeans
(B) Indian Christians
(C) Anglo-Indians
(D) All the above

12. Under which Government of India Act, Federation and Provincial Autonomy were introduced in India—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1935
(B) Govt. of India Act 1930
(C) Govt. of India Act 1940
(D) Govt. of India Act 1936

13. Under the British rule, how many acts came into operation—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1858, Indian Council Act 1861
(B) Indian Council Act 1892, Indian Council Act 1809
(C) Govt. of India Act 1919, Govt. of India Act 1935, Indian Independence Act 1947
(D) All the above

14. Which Act provided India to become an Independent state—
(A) Indian Independence Act 1949
(B) Indian Independence Act 1946
(C) Indian Independence Act 1947
(D) None of the above

15. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, the Indian Federation worked through which kind of list—
(A) Federal List
(B) Provincial List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) All the above

16. In the Govt. of India Act 1835, Federal List contained which kind of subjects—
(A) External Affairs
(B) Currency and Coinage
(C) Naval, Military and Force, Census
(D) All the above

17. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, provincial list included which kind of subjects—
(A) Police
(B) Provincial Public Service
(C) Education
(D) All the above

18. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, which subjects are included in the concurrent list—
(A) Criminal Law & Procedure, Civil Procedure
(B) Marriage
(C) Divorce, Arbitration
(D) All the above

19. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, who had the power to proclaim emergency—
(A) Governor General
(B) General of India
(C) Governor of the State
(D) None of the above

20. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, who was authorised to make a law on the Provincial subject—
(A) Governor
(B) Governor General
(C) Federal Legislature
(D) None of the above

21. Which Constitution is in the written form for the first time by an elected body during the Modern period—
(A) India
(B) America
(C) Britain
(D) France

22. Who was the de facto Prime Minister at the time of evolution of the Indian Constituent Assembly—
(A) Moti Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patal
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) H. N. Kunzru

23. Who boicotted the Indian Constituent Assembly—
(A) Unionist Muslim
(B) Muslim League
(C) Unionist Scheduled Caste
(D) Krishak Poja

24. In the Constituent Assembly, which parties were members—
(A) Congress, Muslim League, Unionist Muslim
(B) Unionist Scheduled Caste, Krishak Poja, Scheduled Castes Federation, Sikh (Non Congress)
(C) Communists, Independents
(D) All the above

25. Which party said that Indian Constituent Assembly does not have a fully representative character—
(A) Congress
(B) Muslim League
(C) Unionist Muslim
(D) Unionist Scheduled Castes

26. After independence, who decided to determine the Future Constitution of India—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
(C) Constituent Assembly
(D) None of the above

27. Whom the Indian Constituent Assembly represented—
(A) Fully representative of the Hindus
(B) Fully representative of the State in India
(C) Fully representative of the Provinces in India
(D) Fully representative of the States and Provinces in India

28. Through which offer, the British Government authoritatively supported a Constituent Assembly for making the Indian Constitution
(A) August offer
(B) Viceroy offer
(C) Sir Strafford Cripps offer
(D) None of the above

29. Who supported the views of the Constituent Assembly for making the Indian Constitution—
(A) Sardar Patel
(B) Gandhiji
(C) Jinnah
(D) None of the above

30. Gandhiji wrote which article in the Harijan of 19th November 1939 to support the formation of Constituent Assembly for making the Constitution of India—
(A) The need of Constitution
(B) Formation of Constituent Assembly
(C) The only way
(D) The way

31. Which Party supported formation of a Constituent Assembly—
(A) Congress
(B) Muslim League
(C) Unionist Muslim
(D) Unionist Scheduled Castes

32. When did Constituent Assembly adopt a national Flag—
(A) 22nd Aug. 1947
(B) 22nd July 1947
(C) 22nd Jan. 1947
(D) 22nd Oct. 1947

33. Did the Constituent Assembly exist at the time of Indian Independence—
(A) No
(B) Only idea emerged
(C) Yes
(D) Uncertainty regarding formation of said Assembly

34. Who was the last British Governor General who addressed the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Lord Attlee
(B) Lord Mount Batten
(C) Lord Bentick
(D) None of the above

35. When did the Constituent Assembly passed a resolution for translation of the Constitution of India into Hindi and other many languages of India—
(A) 17th Sep. 1949
(B) 17th Oct. 1949
(C) 17th Nov. 1949
(D) 17th Dec. 1949

36. What was the last session of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Eleventh session
(B) Twelfth session
(C) Sixteenth session
(D) Seventh session

37. When was the last Twelfth session of the Constituent Assembly held—
(A) 24th Jan. 1950
(B) 24th Feb. 1950
(C) 24th April 1950
(D) 24th Dec. 1950

38. How many copies of the Constitution were printed after the Constituent Assembly framed the same—
(A) Two
(B) One
(C) Three
(D) Four

39. Which song was sang in the Constituent Assembly before its Adjournment sine die—
(A) Jana Gana Man
(B) Vande Matram
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

40. For how many years, months and days, did the Constituent Assembly work on the Constitution of India—
(A) 2 Years, 11 months and 19 Days
(B) 3 Years, 12 months and 16 Days
(C) 4 Years, 18 months and 6 Days
(D) None of the above

41. How many number of sessions were held in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Twenty sessions
(B) Twelve sessions
(C) Twenty-five sessions
(D) Twenty-eight sessions

42. How many Articles and Schedules were in the First Draft Constitution presented by the Drafting Committee to the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 318 Articles and 7 Schedules
(B) 319 Articles ad 10 Schedules
(C) 315 Articles and 8 Schedules
(D) 399 Articles and 5 Schedules

43. In the final form of the Constitution adopted by the Constituent Assembly, how many Articles and Schedules were there—
(A) 397 Articles and 9 Schedules
(B) 395 Articles and 4 Schedules
(C) 396 Articles and 7 Schedules
(D) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules

44. In the Constituent Assembly how many total number of Amendments were proposed in the Draft Constitution—
(A) Approx. 7935
(B) Approx. 7892
(C) Approx. 7365
(D) Approx. 2473

45. What was the expenditure made by the Constituent Assembly while framing the Constitution of India—
(A) Rs. 63,96,729
(B) Rs. 64,98,725
(C) Rs. 69,92,769
(D) Rs. 65,92,926

46. How many visitors came to witness the proceedings of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 52,500
(B) 53,000
(C) 54,000
(D) 54,500

47. Who presented the Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Motilal Nehru
(C) Sardar Ballabah Bhai Patel
(D) None of the above

48. When was the First Draft of the Constitution of India proposed—
(A) Oct. 1945
(B) Oct. 1947
(C) Oct. 1946
(D) Oct. 1948

49. Who prepared the first draft Constitution of India—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Gandhiji
(C) Advisory Branch of the Constituent Assembly
(D) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel

50. Who was the Chairman of the Draft Committee of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Jagjivan Ram
(D) None of the above
____________________________________________________________________________

Answers :1.(A) 2.(B) 3.(D) 4.(C) 5.(B) 6.(C) 7.(B) 8.(D) 9.(B) 10.(A)
11.(D) 12.(A) 13.(D) 14.(C) 15.(D) 16.(D) 17.(D) 18.(D) 19.(A) 20.(C)
21.(B) 22.(C) 23.(B) 24.(D) 25.(B) 26.(C) 27.(D) 28.(A) 29.(B) 30.(C)
31.(A) 32.(B) 33.(C) 34.(B) 35.(A) 36.(B) 37.(A) 38.(C) 39.(C) 40.(A)
41.(B) 42.(C) 43.(D) 44.(C) 45.(A) 46.(B) 47.(A) 48.(B) 49.(C) 50.(A)

UNO QUESTIONS

1. The UN Charter was ratified in 1945 by :
(A) 25 nations
(B) 51 nations
(C) 33 nations
(D) 37 nations
(E) None of these

2. The UN Charter was finalised and became effective on :
(A) San Francisco; 24th October, 1945
(B) Paris; 5th March, 1944
(C) Yalta; 2nd February, 1945
(D) Warsaw, 24th October, 1943
(E) None of these

3. Which of the following agencies related to the United Nations was in existence before the Second World War?
(A) Food and Agricultural Organisation
(B) International Labour Organisation
(C) World Health Organisaton
(D) International Monetary Fund
(E) None of these

4. When was the International Monetary Fund (IMF) established?
(A) 1945
(B) 1946
(C) 1947
(D) 1950
(E) None of these

5. The United Nations declared 2009 as the International year of :
(A) Natural Fibre
(B) World Population
(C) Communication
(D) Elderly persons
(E) None of these

6. Palau which became the 185th member of the United Nations in 1994 is in :
(A) Asia
(B) Western Pacific
(C) Europe
(D) South America
(E) None of these

7. Which day is celebrated as United Nations Day every year?
(A) 7th April
(B) 24th October
(C) 14th November
(D) 27th December
(E) None of these

8. Which of the following statements in regard to the UN Security Council is not correct?
(A) Of its total membership, five members are permanent members
(B) The Presidency of the Council is alternated on a monthly basis confined to the permanent members
(C) In voting on substantive measures, all permanent members must vote ‘yes’ if the measure is to pass
(D) The ten non-permanent members do not have the veto power
(E) None of these

9. To which country did the first Secretary-General of the UN belong?
(A) Austria
(B) Egypt
(C) Myanmar
(D) Norway
(E) None of these

10. The total number of judges of the International Court of Justice (ICJ) is :
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 18
(E) None of these

11. The headquarter of the International Court of Justice is at :
(A) Geneva
(B) The Hague
(C) Rome
(D) Vienna
(E) None of these

12. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) was created under the aegis of the UN in :
(A) 1945
(B) 1946
(C) 1955
(D) 1957
(E) None of these

13. Which of the following statements in regard to the working of the International Court of Justice is not correct?
(A) All questions before it are decided by a majority of the judges present
(B) The Court is permanently in session at the Hague, but may hold its meetings elsewhere, if necessary
(C) Its opinion, where sought by the UN must be accepted by a simple majority vote
(D) Case may be referred to the Court by member-nations involved in a dispute, in which case the Court’s decision is binding upon them
(E) None of these

14. India became a member of the United Nations in :
(A) 1945
(B) 1947
(C) 1949
(D) 1950
(E) None of these

15. The number of principal organs of the United Nations is :
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) None of these

16. The only Indian woman who became President of the World Health Organisation so far is/was :
(A) Smt. Kamala Devi Chattopadhyaya
(B) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur
(C) Smt. Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(D) Dr. Sushila Nayar
(E) None of these

17. The term of office of a Judge of the International Court of Justice is :
(A) 3 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 9 years
(D) 10 years
(E) None of these

18. Who donated the land for U.N. Secretariat building?
(A) Henry Ford
(B) Roosevelt
(C) John D. Rockefeller
(D) Hilton
(E) None of these

19. Which of the following UN agencies has its headquarters at Paris?
(A) UNESCO
(B) ILO
(C) FAO
(D) IMO
(E) None of these

20. To which country does the present UN Secretary-General belong?
(A) Egypt
(B) France
(C) South Korea
(D) Sweden
(E) None of these

Answers :
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (C)
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (B)