PRACTICE GENERAL ABILITY QUESTIONS

1. Which one of the following countries has its Military base in the Indian Ocean island Diego Garcia?

(1) France

(2) Russia

(3) United Kingdom

(4) United States of America

Ans. (4)

2. Who of the following is the author of the book Confessions of a Swadeshi Reformer: My Years as Finance Minister?

(1) P. Chidambaram

(2) Manmohan Singh

(3) Jaswant Singh

(4) Yashwant Sinha

Ans. (4)

3. Consider thee following statements:

a. BrahMos missile can fly at velocities beyond Mach 2.

b. BrahMos missile has a maximum range of l000 km

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(l) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (1)

4. For outstanding lifetime achievement in which one of the following areas is the Abel Prize, an international prize awarded?

(1) Ecology and Environment

(2) Medical Science

(3) Mathematics

(4) Biotechnology and Genetic Engineering

Ans. (3)

5. Who of the following led the opposition of the Indian Universities Act of 1904?

(1) Aurobindo Ghosh and Lala Lajpat Rai

(2) Surendra Nath Banerjee and Pherozeshah Mehta

(3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Dadabhai Naoroji

(4) W. C Banerjee and R. C. Dutt

Ans. (2)

6. With which of the following broad areas is the concept of ‘Six Sigma’ associated?

(1) Quality control in manufacturing

(2) Path tracing of satellites

(3) Pollution control of automobiles

(4) Printing technology

Ans. (1)

7. Consider the following statements:

a. Organizations of Village Panchayats is included in the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India

b. Freedom as the payments of taxes for promotion of any particular religion as included in the Directive Principles of State Policy

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (4)

8. Oliver Kahn is one the great modern sportsmen. He is in which one of the following games?

(1) Hockey

(2) Football

(3) Golf

(4) Basketball

Ans. (2)

9. Venue of 16th Asian Games, 2010 is?

(1) Kuala Lumpur

(2) Guangzhou

(3) Hanoi

(4) Ho Chi Minh City

Ans. (2)

10. Tasmania is a part of which one of the following countries?

(1) Malaysia

(2) Indonesia

(3) Australia

(4) Thailand

Ans. (3)

11. Consider the following statements:

a. A person is eligible for election as the President of India only if he/she has completed 40 years of age.

b. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college whose composition is similar to the electoral college of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (4)

12. Which one of the following cities of the USA is most Southwards located?

(1) Dallas

(2) San Francisco

(3) Miami

(4) Los Angeles

Ans. (3)

13. The Headquarters of which of the following is located in Paris?

(l) NATO

(2) OECD

(3) European Commission

(4) UNIDO

Ans. (2)

14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Town) (Nearest National Park/Wildlife Sanctuary)

A. Alwar 1. Ghatigaon

B. Bhopal 2. Pench

C. Gwalior 3. Sariska

D. Nagpur 4. Vanvihar

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 4 1 3

(2) 2 1 4 3

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 3 1 4 2

Ans. (3)

15. From North to South, which one of the following sequences of hills is correct?

(1) Dafla Hills-Mik Ir Hills-Jaintia Hills

(2) Dafla Hills-Jaintia Hills Mik Ir Hills

(3) Mik Ir Hills Dafla Hills- Jaintia Hills

(4) Mik Ir Hills-Jaintia Hills-Dafla Hills

Ans. (3)

16.

What does the shaded portion in the map given above represent?

(1) Coniferous forests

(2) Alpine forests

(3) High altitude vegetations.

(4) Temperate grasslands

Ans. (4)

17. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of petroleum in South America?

(1) Brazil

(2) Venezuela

(3) Colombia

(4) Argentina

Ans. (2)

18.

In the map given above four shaded areas are marked as a, b, c and d. Which of these are tea growing areas?

(1) a, b and c only

(2) a, c and d only

(3) b and d only

(4) a, b, c and d

Ans. (2)

19. With reference to Lord Cornwall’s ‘Permanent Settlement’, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) It created a limited proprietary right of Zarmindars on the land.

(2) It had taken away the Magisterial powers of Zamindars.

(3) It had left no police work for Zamindars.

(4) It recognized the rights of tenants due to which landlords could never oust them.

Ans. (4)

20. Which of the following Mughal Emperors built the Jama Masjid of Delhi?

(1) Humayun

(2) Akbar

(2) Jahangir

(4) Shahjehan

Ans. (4)

21. Nadir Shah attacked Delhi during the reign of:

(1) Ahmed Shah

(2) Farrukh Siyar

(3) Jahandar Shah.

(4) Muhammad Shah

Ans. (4)

22. Where is the National industrial Security Academy of the CISF located?

(1) Hyderabad

(2) Mount Abu

(3) Tekanpur

(4) Gwaldam

Ans. (1)

23. The Constituent Assemble was set up under the

(1) Cripps Mission

(2) Caninet Mission Plan

(3) Wavell Plan

(4) Nehru Report

Ans. (2)

24. Which vitamin is essential for coagulation of blood ?

(1) A

(2) D

(3) E

(4) K

Ans. (4)

25. CAPART is engaged primarily with which one of the following in India?

(1) e-governance

(2) Share market

(3) Rural development

(4) Pollution control

Ans. (3)

26. The elements essentially present in Sun are

(1) Oxygen and Nitrogen.

(2) Carbon and Oxygen

(3) Hydrogen and Helium

(4) Hydrogen and Oxygen

Ans. (3)

27. Which-one of the following pairs is not corect1y matched?

(1) Ghadar Movement : Sohan Singh Bhakna

(2) Kisan movement : Lala Lajpat Rai

(3) Hindustan Republican Association : .Sachindranath Sanyal

(4) Hindu Dharma Sanrakshini Sabha : Madan Mohan Malaviya

Ans. (2)

28. Consider the following statements:

1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru hoisted the National flag on 31^st December, 1929 at Lahore

2. Independence Day was observed on 26^th January, 1930 all over India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both l and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (3)

29. In humans, which one of the following causes tetanus?

(1) Bacteria

(2) Fungus

(3) Protozoan

(4) Virus

Ans. (1)

30. Consider the following statements:

1. Sundarbans delta is a very large mangrove forest.

2. Sundarbans delta lies at the mouth of the Ganges.

3. Sundarbans National Park has been recognized as a World Heritage Site

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) l and 2 only

(2) 2 and 3 only

(3) l and 3 only

(4) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (4)

31. Why does one feel muscular fatigue after strenuous physical work?

(1) Accumulation of urea in the muscles

(2) Accumulation of lactic acid in the-muscles

(3) Loss of glucose from muscles

(4) Lack of Oxygen in muscles

Ans. (2)

32. Which one of the following organs produces urea in the human body?

(1) Kidney

(2) Liver

(3) Spleen

(4) Urinary bladder

Ans. (1)

33. In most computer systems, how many binary bits are there in a byte?

(1) 8

(2) 16

(3) 32

(4) 64

Ans. (1)

34. Match List -I (Mineral) with List -II (Main Location of Reserves) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Mineral) (Main Location of Reserves)

A. Tungsten 1. Andhra Pradesh

B. Nickel 2. Kerala

C. Zircon 3. Rajasthan

D. Mica 4. Orissa

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 4 2 1

(2) 2 1 3 4

(3) 3 1 2 4

(4) 2 4 3 1

Ans. (1)

35. Match List –l (Book) with List-II (Writer) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Book) (Writer)

A. The Good Earth 1. Khushwant Singh

B. Untouchable 2. Kamala Markandaya

C. Nectar in a Sieve 3. Pearl S. Buck

D. Train to Pakistan 4. Mulk Raj Anand and

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 4 3 1

(2) 3 1 2 4

(3) 2 1 3 4

(4) 3 4 2 1

Ans. (4)

36. How is Norman Borlaug well known ?

(1) Agricultural scientist who won the Nobel Prize for Peace

(2) Made substantial contribution to research in cancer

(3) Famous humorist and poet

(4) A famous journalist

Ans. (1)

37. Match List- I (Famous Person) with List-II (Area) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Famous Person) (Area)

A. E .C. G. Sudarshan 1. Economics

B. P. K. Sethi 2. Long-distance swimming

C. Mihar Sen 3. Orthopedic surgery

D. I. G. Patel 4. Physics

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 4 2 3 1

(2) 1 3 2 4

(3) 4 3 2 1

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (3)

38. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the population density in the given States/Union Territories/NCR Delhi?

(1) Delhi > Chandigarh > Uttar Pradesh > West Bengal

(2) Chandigarh > Delhi > West Bengal> Uttar Pradesh

(3) Chandigarh > Delhi > Uttar Pradesh

(4) Delhi > Chandigarh > West Bengal > Uttar Pradesh

Ans. (4)

39. Match List-II (Factory) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Factory) List-II (Location)

A. Rail Coach Factory 1. Bangalore

B. Integral Coach Factory 2. Varanasi

C. Wheel and Axle Plant 3. Kapurthala

D. Diesel Loco Works 4. Perambur

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 4 1 2

(2) 2 1 4 3

(3) 3 1 4 2

(4) 2 4 1 3

Ans. (1)

40. Which one of the following states accounts for maximum production of gold in India? (1) Karnataka

(2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Goa

(4) Tamil Nadu

Ans. (1)

41. Which one of the following is not located in Maharashtra?

(1) Goral Beach

(2) Alibaug Beach

(3) Erangal Beach

(4) Devbagh Beach

Ans. (3)

42. Relevance ranking is a term associated with which one of the following?

(1) Search engines in Internet

(2) Critics ranking of Hollywood picture

(3) Evaluation process used in purchase of aircrafts

(4) A strategy used in warfare

Ans. (2)

43. Trinidad and Tobago got independent in 1962 from which one of the following countries?

(1) Argentina

(2) Britain

(3) Spain

(4) Portugal

Ans. (2)

44. Match List- I (Institute) with List- II (Location) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Institute) (Location)

A. Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel Management 1. Bangalore

B. Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology 2. Pune

C. Indian Institute of Astrophysics 3. Gwalior

D. Indian Institute of Astrophysics 4. Hyderabad

5. Mumbai

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 2 5 1

(2) 5 1 4 2

(3) 3 1 5 2

(4) 5 2 4 1

Ans. (3)

45. Who among the following was associated with the ‘Great Arc’- one of the biggest survey exercises in the world?

(1) William Lambton

(2) Adam Smith

(3) E. Raisz

(4) Karl Scheibler

Ans. (4)

46. In which one of the following States is the Falta Special Economic Zone located?

(1) Kerala

(2) Gujarat

(3) Orissa

(4)West Benga1

Ans. (4)

47. Consider the following statements:

1. Pattadakal Group of Monuments have been recognized as a World Heritage Site

2. .Pattadakal Group of Monuments were built by the Chola Dynasty of Southern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) l only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (1)

Direction (48-50) .The following three (3) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and-select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Code:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but, R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Ans. (4)

48. Assertion (A): In the year 1919, M.A. Jinnah and M. M. Malaviya resigned their membership of Central Legislative Council

Reason (R): In the year 1919, the Government of India passed the Rowlatt Act, which was opposed by all the Indian members of the Legislative Council

Ans. (3)

49. Assertion (A): Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from the office of the President of the Indian National Congress in the year 1989.

Reason (R): Subhash Chandra Bose left the congress to form the Indian independence League in South-East Asia.

Ans. (3)

50. Assertion (A): In the Indian system, the Executive cannot impose any tax without any legislative sanction

Reason (R): It is expressly laid down by our constitution that no tax can be imposed unless it is authorized by an Approproriation Act

Ans. (3)

PRACTICE GENERAL AWARENESS QUESTIONS

1. Lake Sambhar is nearest to which of the following cities of Rajasthan?

(1) Bharatpur

(2) Ja1pur

(3) Jodhpur

(4) Udaipur

Ans. (2)

2. Consider the following statements:

1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body.

2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.

3. ‘Athlete’s foot’ is a disease caused by virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) 1 and 2

(2) 2 and 3

(3) 1 and 3

(4) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (4)

3. Two cars X and Y start from two places A and B respectively which are 700 km apart at 9 am both the cars run at an average speed of 60km/hr. Car X stops at 10 am. and again starts at 11 a.m.

While the other car Y continues to run without stopping. When do the cars cross each other?

(1) 1:40 p.m

(2) 3:20 pm

(3) 4:10 p.m

(4) 4:20 p.m.

Ans. (2)

4. Which among the following National Highway routes is the longest?

(1) Agra-Mumbai

(2) Chennai-Thane

(3) Kolkata-Hajira

(4) Pune-Machilipatnam

Ans. (3)

5. Consider the following statements:

1. Narsimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and seized the throne for himself and started the Saluva dynasty.

2. Vira Narasimha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the throne for himself.

3. Vira Narasimha was succeeded by his younger brother Krishnadeva Raya.

4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by the half-brother Achyuta Raya.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) 1, 2 and 3

(2) 2, 3 and 4

(3) l and 4

(4) l, 2, 3, and 4

Ans. (4)

6. Match List-I (Institute) with List-II (Located At) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Institute) List-II (Located At)

A. Indian Institute Geomagnetism 1. Coimbatore

B. International Advanced Research Centre 2. Mumbai

for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials

C. Salem Ali Centre for Ornithology and 3. Jabalpur

Natural History

D. Tropical Forestry Research Institute 4. Hyderabad

Code:

A B C D

(1) 2 3 1 4

(2) 1 4 2 3

(3) 2 4 1 3

(4) 1 3 2 4

Ans. (3)

7. Consider the following events during India’s Freedom struggle:

1. Cháuri-chaura Outrage

2. Minto-Morley Reforms

3. Dandi March

4. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms

Which one of the following is the correct ‘chronological order of the events given above?

(1) 1, 3, 2, 4

(2) 2, 4, 1, 3

(3) 1, 4, 2, 3

(4) 2, 3, 1, 4

Ans. (2)

8. Which one of the following four vedas contains an account of magical charms and spells?

(1) Rig-veda

(2) Yajur-veda

(3) Atharva-veda

(4) Sama-veda

Ans. (3)

9. The Montague-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of:

(1) The Indian Councils Act, 1909

(2) The Government of India Act, 1919

(3) the Government of India Act, 1935

(4) the Indian Independence Act, 1947

Ans. (2)

10. If the difference between 3/8 and 2/7 of a number are 50, then the number is:

(1) 500

(2) 520

(3) 540

(4) 560

Ans. (4)

11. If Chandra is shorter than Rina, Puja is taller than Sita and Sita is taller than Rina, who among them is the tallest?

(1) Chandra

(2) Puja

(3) Rina

(4) Sita

Ans. (2)

12. Latvia does not share its borders with which one of the following countries?

(1) Russia

(2) Estonia

(3) Lithuania

(4) Poland

Ans. (4)

13. Match List-I (Sea) with List- II (Country) and select the correct answer with the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Sea) List-II (Country)

A. Black Sea 1. Bulgaria

B. Red Sea 2. China

C. Yellow Sea 3. Eritrea

D. Caspian Sea 4. Kazakhstan

Code:

A B C D

(1) 1 4 2 3

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 1 3 2 4

(4) 2 4 1 3

Ans. (3)

14. A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at 7 am to walk around a rectangular field 400 m x 300 m. A and B walk at the rate of 3 km/hr respectively.

How many times shall they cross each other if they continue to walk till 12:30 p.m.?

(1) Not even once

(2) Once

(3) Twice

(4) Thrice

Ans. (2)

15. Consider the following international languages:

1. Arabic

2. French

3. Spanish

The correct sequence of the languages given above in the decreasing order of the number of their speakers is:

(1) 3, 1, 2

(2) 1, 3, 2

(3) 3, 2, 1

(4) 1, 2, 3

Ans. (1)

16. In the last one decade which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest Foreign Direct Investment inflows into India?

(1) Chemicals other than Fertilizers

(2) Services sector

(3) Food processing

(4) Telecommunication

Ans. (4)

17. If a water tank is filled by pump A in 6 hours and by pump B in 12 hours, how many hours it would take to fill the tank if the pumps A and B both are operated simultaneously?

(1) 2

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) 5

Ans. (3)

18. The missing number in the following series: 82, 97, 114, 133? Is:

(1) 152

(2) 153

(3) 154

(4) 155

Ans. (3)

19. A man is facing North-West. He turns 90° in Clock wise direction and then 135° in anticlock wise direction. Which direction he is facing now?

(l) North

(2) South

(3) East

(4) West

Ans. (4)

20. 100 mm is equivalent to:

(1) 0.001 meter.

(2) 0.01 meter

(3) 0.1 meter

(4) 1.0 meter

Ans. (3)

21. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Reinhold Messner : Computer Technology

(2 Harlow Shapely : Astronomy

(3) Gregor Mendel : Hereditary Theory

(4) Godfrey Hounsfield : CT Scan

Ans. (1)

22. Which of the following authors won the Booker Prize twice?

(1) Margaret Atwood

(2) J. M. Coetzee

(3) Graham Swift

(4) Jan McEwan

Ans. (2)

23. 50 men or 80 women can finish a job in 50 days. A contractor deploys 40 men and 48 women for this work, but after every duration of 10 days, 5 men and 8 women are removed till the work is completed. The work is completed in:

(1) 45days

(2) 50 days

(3) 54 days

(4) 62 days

Ans. (2)

24. A person stands at the middle point of a wooden ladder which starts slipping between a vertical wall and the floor of a room, while continuing to remain In a vertical plane. The path traced by a person

standing at the middle point of ‘the slipping ladder ‘is:

(1) straight line

(2) an elliptical path

(3) a circular path

(4) a parabolic path

Ans. (3)

25. Match List-I (New Name of the Countries) with List-II (Old names of the Countries) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (New Names of the Countries) List-II (Old Names of the Countries)

A. Benin 1. Nyasaland

B. Belize 2. Basutoland

C. Botswana 3. Bechuanaland

D. Malawi 4. British Honduras

5. Dahomey

Code:

A B C D

(1) 3 1 2 4

(2) 5 4 3 1

(3) 3 4 2 1

(4) 5 1 3 4

Ans. (2)

26. Consider the following statements:

1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.

2: Quicklime is used in the manufacture of glass.

3. Gypsum is used in the manufacture of Plaster of Paris.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) l and 2

(2) 2 and 3

(3) 1 only

(4) 1, 2, and 3

Ans. (4)

27. In how many different ways can six players be arranged in a line such that two of them Ajit and Mukherjee are never together?

(1) 120

(2) 240

(3) 360

(4) 480

Ans. (4)

28. Nine different letters are to be dropped in three different letter boxes. In how many different ways can this be done?

(1) 27

(2) 3⁹

(3) 9³

(4) 3⁹-3

Ans. (2)

29. Which of the following institutes have been recognized as the Institute of National Importance (by an Act of Parliament)?

1. Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai

2. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Mohali

3. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Services and Technology, Thiruvananthayuram.

4. Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education, Gwalior

Select the correct answer using ‘the codes given below:

Code:

(1)1, 2 and 3

(2) 3 and 4

(3) l, 2 and 4

(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (4)

30. With reference to the constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Forests : Concurrent List

(2) Stocks & Exchanges : Concurrent List

(3 Post Office Saving Bank : Union List

(4) Public Health : State List

Ans. (2)

31. Consider the following tasks:

1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections.

2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all e1ection to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President.

3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and, individuals contesting the election.

4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes.

Which of the above is the functions of the Election Commission of India?

(1) l, 2 and 3

(2) 2, 3 and 4

(3) l and 3

(4) 1, 2 and 4

Ans. (1)

32. Match List-I (Sports-person) with List-II (Sport/Game) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Sports-person) List-II (Sport/game)

A. Shikha Tandon 1. Badminton

B. Ignace Tirkey 2. Swimming

C. Pankaj Advani 3. Lawn Tennis

D. Rohan Bopanna 4. Snooker

5. Hockey

Code:

A B C D

(1) 3 5 4 2

(2) 2 4 1 3

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 2 5 4 3

Ans. (4)

33. Three students are picked at random from a school having a total of 1000 students. The probability that these three students will have identical date and month of their birth is:

(1) 3/1000

(2) 3/365

(3) 1/ (365)²

(4) 1/ (365)²

Ans. (3)

34. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

List-I (Period) List-II (Wars)

1. AD 1767.69 1. First Anglo-Maratha War

2. AD 1790-92 2. Third Mysore War

3. AD 1824-26 3. First Anglo-Burmese War

4. AD 1845-46 4 Second Sikh War

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Code:

(1) 2 and 4

(2) 3 and 4

(3) 1 and 2

(4) 2 and 3

Ans. (4)

35. In which one of the following Union Territories do the people of the Onge tribe live?

(1) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(2) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

(3) Daman and Diu

(4) Lakshadweep

Ans. (1)

36. Consider the following crops:

1. Cotton

2. Groundnut

2. Maize

3. Mustard

Which of the above are Kharif Crops?

(1) l and 2

(2) 1, 2 and 3

(3) 3 and 4

(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (2)

37. Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List-II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I

(Articles of the Constitution of India) List-II (Provision)

A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion,

race, caste, sex, and place of birth or any of them

B. Article 15 2. The State shall to deny to any person equality

before the law or the equal protection of laws

within the territory of India

C. Article 16 3. Untouchability is abolished and its practice in

any form is forbidden

D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all

citizens in matters relating to employment or

appointment to any office under the State.

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 4 1 3

(2) 3 1 4 2

(3) 2 1 4 3

(4) 3 4 1 2

Ans. (3)

38. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Pitt’s India Act : Warren Hasting

(2) Doctrine of Lapse : Dalhousie

(3) Vernacular Press Act : Curzon

(4) Ilbert Bill : Ripon

Ans. (3)

39. Match List-I (Beaches in India) with List-II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Beaches in India) List-II (States)

A. Gopinath Beach 1. Andhra Pradesh

B. Lawsons Bay Beach 2. Kerala

C. Devbah beach 3. Gujarat

D. Sinquerim Beach 4. Goa

5. Karnataka

Code:

A B C D

(1) 5 4 2 1

(2) 3 1 5 4

(3) 5 1 2 4

(4) 3 4 5 1

Ans. (2)

40. Consider the following statements:

1. Adam Osborne produced the first portable computer

2. Ian Wilmut created the first cloned sheep

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither l nor 2

Ans. (3)

41. Consider the following statements:

1. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on 26 January 1950.

2. The borrowing programme of the Government of India is handled by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.

Which of the ‘statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both l and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (4)

42. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Under the Targeted Public distribution System, the families below Poverty Line are provided 50 kg. of food grains per month per family at subsidized price

(2) Under Annapurna Scheme indigent senior citizens of 65 years of age or above eligible for national Old Age Pension but not getting pension can get 10 kg of food grain per person per month free of cost

(3) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has scheme in which indigent people living in welfare institutions like orphanages are given 15 kg of food grains per month at BPL rates

(4) Ministry of Human Resource Development given financial support to Midday Meal Scheme for the Benefit of class I to V students in government or Government aided Schools

Ans. (1)

43. Consider the following statements:

1. Non-function of lachrymal gland is an import symptom of deficiency of Vitamin A.

2. Deficiently of Vitamin B₁ can lead to indigestion and heart enlargement.

3. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to pain in the muscles

4. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes Increased loss of Ca⁺⁺ in urine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) l and 2

(2) 2, 3 and 4

(3) l, 3 and 4

(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (1)

44. The hormone insulin is a:

(1) Glycolipid

(2) Fatty acid

(3) Peptide

(4) Sterol

Ans. (3)

45. Consider the following statements:

1. In the third battle of Panipat, Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated Ibrahim Lodi

2. Tippu Sultan was killed in the third Anglo-Mysore War.

3. Mir Jafar entered in conspiracy with the English for the defeat of Nawab Slraj-ud-daulah in the Battle of Plessey

Which of the statements given is/are correct’?

(1) l, 2 and 3,

(2) 3 only

(3) 2 and 3

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

46. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?

(1) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of parliament before it can be enacted into law.

(2) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India, except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act.

(3) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation

(4) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President

Ans. (1)

47. Consider the following statements:

Some of the main features of the Government of India Act. 1935 were the:

1. Abolition of dyarchy in the Governor’s provinces

2. Power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate on their own

3. abolition of the principle of communal representation

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 1 and 2

(3) 2 and 3

(4) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (2)

Directions: (48-55) The following 8 (eight) items consists two statements: one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R): You are to examine these items using the codes given below:

Codes:

(1) Both A and Rare individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) A is false but R is true

48. Assertion A: Bangalore receives much higher average annual rainfall than that of

Mangalore.

Reason(R): Bangalore has the benefit of receiving rainfall both from South-West and

North -East Monsoons

Ans. (4)

49. Assertion A: The central Rural Sanitation programme was launched in 1986 to improve the quality of life of rural people in India

Reas0n (R): Rural Sanitations a subject in the Concurrent list in the Constitution of India.

Ans. (3)

50. Assertion (A): West-flowing rivers of Peninsular India have no deltas.

Reason (R): These rivers do not carry any alluvial sediment.

Ans. (1)

51. Assertion (A): The thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the Equator. Reason (R): High insolation and strong convection currents occur over the equator.

Ans. (4)

52. Assertion (A): In our houses, the current in electricity line change direction 60 second per second.

Reason (R): The frequency of alternating voltage supplied is 60 hertz.

Ans. (1)

53. Assertion (A): Fatty acids should be a part of the human diet

Reason (R): The cells of the human body cannot synthesize any fatty acids.

Ans. (3)

54. Assertion (A): India does not export rubber

Reason (R): About 97 percent of India’s demand for natural rubber is met from domestic production.

Ans. (2)

55. Assertion (A): The urban population of India (2001) exceeds the total population of the U.S.A.

Reason (R): India is more urbanized than the U.S.A.

Ans. (3)

56. Which one of the following cities is not correctly matched with its country?

(1) Salamanca : Spain

(2) Cannes : Italy

(3) Cancun : Mexico

(4) Bruges : Belgium

Ans. (2)

57. Which one of the following statements is correct?

‘Deccan Odyssey’ is

(1) a book on Chatrapati Shivaji

(2) a warship recently acquired by the Indian Navy

(3) a recently started air service between Mumbai and Colombo

(4) a luxury train which travels through Mahrashtra and includes Goa in its journey.

Ans. (4)

58. Which one of the following Article of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice that exercise of the executive power of the Union?

(1) Article. 57

(2) Article 258

(3) Article 355

(4) Article 356

Ans. (1)

59. Match List-I (Minerals) with List-II (location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I Minerals List-II (Location)

A. Coal 1 Giridih

B. Copper 2. Jayamkondam

C. Manganese 3. Alwar

D. Lignite 4. Dharwar

Code:

A B C D

(1) 1 4 3 2

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 1 3 4 2

(4) 2 4 3 1

Ans. (3)

60. Consider the following geological phenomena:

1. Development of fault

2. Movement along a fault

3. Impact produced by a volcanic eruption

4 Folding of rocks

Which of the above cause earthquakes?

(l) l, 2 and 3

(2) 2 and 4

(3) 1, 3 and 4

(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (4)

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Which one of the following is used as purgative?

(1) Calcium chloride

(2) Magnesium

(3) Potassium iodide

(4) Sodium thiosulphate

Ans. (1)

2. The fibrinogen which is associated with blood clotting is produced by

(1) Bone marrow

(2) Liver

(3) Pancreas

(4) Spleen

Ans. (1)

3. Which one of the following sets is a part of vitamin B complex?

(1) Thiamine, riboflavin, biotin, calciferol

(2) Thiamine, riboflavin, retinol, biotin

(3) Thiamine, biotin, pyridoxine, ascorbic acid

(4) Thiamine, riboflavin biotin, nicotinic acid

Ans. (2)

4. Match List -I (Gland) with List -II (Hormone Produced) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Gland) (Hormone Produced)

A. Adrenal 1. Aldosterone

B. Pancreas 2. Calcitonin

C. Thyroid 3. Glucagon

Code:

A B C

(1) 1 2 3

(2) 1 3 2

(3) 2 3 1

(4) 3 1 2

Ans. (2)

5. Which of the following are good sources of vitamin C (ascorbic acid)?

l. Grapes

2. Pineapple

3. Guava

4. Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) l, 2 and 3

(2) l and 4

(3) 2, 3 and 4

(4) 1, 2. 3 and 4

Ans. (1)

6. Match List -I (Person) with List- II (Associated With) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Person) (Associated With)

A. Elfriede Jelinek 1. World Bank

B. Paul Wolfowitz 2. Media

C. Rupert Murdoch 3. Music

D. Zubin Mehta 4. Literature

Code:

A B C D

(1) 4 3 2 1

(2) 2 1 4 3

(3) 4 1 2 3

(4) 2 3 4 1

Ans. (3)

7. Match List -I (Famous Person) with List- II (Well-known As) and Select the correct using the code given below in the list:

List-I List-II

(Famous Person) (Well-known As)

A. Billy Arjun Singh 1. Historian

B. Habib Tanvir 2. Painter

C. Irfan Habib 3. Theatre personality

D. Jatin Das 4. Wildlife conservationist

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 1 3 4 2

(2) 4 2 1 3

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 4 3 1 2

Ans. (4)

8. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Anjolie Ela Menon : Painter

(2) Bula Chowdhury : Film direction

(3) Sunita Narain : Environmental activist

(4) Swarn Noora : Singer.

Ans. (2)

9. What was the main subject of the Kyoto Protocol?

(1) Bio-diversity

(2) Global warming

(3) Alternative sources of energy

(4) Genetically modified organisms

Ans. (2)

10. Consider the following statements:

1. The National Legal Literacy Mission, is being implemented by the Law Commission.

2. The official mascot for the National Legal Literary Mission is Ashoka’s Dharma chakra. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (3)

11. Under which one of the following Union Ministries does the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee work?

(1) Science and Technology

(2) Environment and Forests

(3) Agriculture

(4) Human Resource Development

Ans. (4)

12. The Dinka tribe, whose members are amongst the tallest in the world, and are frequently in news, belong to which of the following countries.

(1) Afghanistan

(2) Uzbekistan

(3) Spain

(4) Sudan

Ans. (4)

13. Where is the NTPC’s 520- MW Tapovan Vishnugad hydro-electric project ?

(1) Assam

(2) Himachal Pradesh

(3) Jammu and Kashmir

(4) Uttranchal

Ans. (4)

14. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?

1. The Prime Minister

2. Ministers of the Union Cabinet.

3 Chief Ministers of the States.

4; The Chairman, Finance Commission.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) l and 2

(2) 1, 2 and 3

(3) 2, 3 and.4

(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (2)

15. In India, where is its only live volcano located?

(1) Byramgore Reef

(2) Palk Bay

(3) Little Nicobar

(4) Barren Island

Ans. (3)

16. Which one of the following is not among the G4 countries which seek a permanent

Membership in the Security Council of the UNO?

(1) Brazil

(2) Germany

(3) Italy

(4) Japan

Ans. (3)

17. ‘Deen Dayal’ Project of the Gujarat Government deals with which one of the following?

(1) Housing for the rural population

(2) At least one-job for every family

(3) Promotion of rural handicraft industry

(4) Gas discovery in the Krishna Godavari basin

Ans. (3)

18. Chaitra l of the National Calendar based on the Saka era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian Calendar in a normal year of 365 days?

(1) 22^nd March

(2) 15^th May

(3) 31^st March

(4) 21^st Apr

Ans. (1)

19. Consider the following statements:

1. Rapid Action Force is an integral part of the National Security Guards

2. Sashastra Seema Bal under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defense.

Which of the statements given above Is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both land 2

(4) Neither 1 nor2

Ans. (1)

20. Consider the following statements:

1. Indo-Tibetan Border Police is fondly called “Friends of the Hill People”.

2. Besides the Public Sector Undertakings, the security at the airports and the government buildings in Delhi has been entrusted to the Central Industrial Security Force.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both land 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (3)

Directions: The following 5 (Five) items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (1)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Codes:

(1) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) A is false but R is true

21. Assertion (1): During the reign of Siraj-ud-daulah of Bengal, the English East India Company began to fortify Calcutta began to fortify Calcutta with out the Nawab’s permission.

Reason (R): The English Company had already got permission from the Emperor Shah Alam II to fortify Calcutta in anticipation of their fight with the French stationed at Chandernagore.

Ans. (3)

22. Assertion (1): Samudragupta undertook a military campaign to South India:

Reason (R): The rulers of South India posed a major threat to the stability of the Gupta Empire.

Ans. (2)

23. Assertion (1): The annual range of temperature is greater in the Pacific Ocean as compared to that of the Atlantic Ocean.

Reason (R): The size of the Pacific Ocean is larger as compared to that of the Atlantic Ocean.

Ans. (1)

24. Assertion (1): The amount of dust particles is more in equatorial regions as compared to that of temperate areas.

Reason (R): The equatorial regions are warmer as compared to the temperate areas.

Ans. (1)

25. Assertion (1): The enactment of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act marks a new era in the federal democratic set-up of the country.

Reason (R): This Act bestowed constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.

Ans. (1)

26. Consider the following statements:

1. The filament of a 60-watt bulb is thinner than that of a 100W bulb.

2. The filament of a glowing bulb emits infrared radiation in addition to visible radiation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (4)

27. Consider the following statements:

1. PVC (used in electric wiring) is an abbreviation for Poly Vanadium Carbon.

2. RDX is an abbreviation for Research Development Explosive.

3. A hectare is equal to 10 acres whereas an acre equals around 4050 square meters of area.

Which f the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1, 2 and 3

(2) 2 and 3only

(3) 1 and 3 only

(4) 2 only

Ans. (4)

28. Where is Diego Garcia located?

(1) Atlantic Ocean

(2) Indian Ocean

(3) Pacific Ocean

(4) Mediterranean Sea

Ans. (2)

29. Why can Moon be not used as a communication satellite?

(1) The distance between Earth and the Moon is not suitable for the purpose

(2) The period of revolution of the Moon is not 24 hours

(3) The Moon doe not evolve in the equatorial plane of the Earth

(4) All the above three are the reasons

Ans. (4)

30. Where is the Riviera region, well known for its climate, landscape and holiday resorts located?

(1) Between New Zealand and Australia

(2) Between Austria and Switzerland

(3) Between the United States of America and Canada

(4) Between France and Italy

Ans. (1)

31. A steel chain consists of 50 links connected to each other. The chain is pulled by applying force F at each of its ends. What is the magnitude of force induced in each link?

(1) F/50

(2) F

(3) 50F

(4) F/25

Ans. (2)

32. Which one of the following countries does not border the Black Sea?

(1) Romania

(2) Ukraine

(3) Bulgaria

(4) Croatia

Ans. (4)

33. Consider the following statements:

1. The Draft Constitution as well as the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly on- 26^th November, 1949 were in both English and Hindi.

2. As per the Constitution of India, until Parliament by law provides otherwise, all proceedings in the Supreme Court shall be in both English and Hindi.

Which of the following given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (4)

34. Consider the following statements:

1. In Part IX of the Constitution of India, there is no provision of reservation for women in any seat to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat.

2. The Eleventh Schedu1 of the Constitution of India distributes powers between the State Legislature and the Panchayat just as the Seventh Schedule distributes power between the Union of India and the States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) l only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4 Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (2)

35. Consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of a State may reserve a Bill for consideration of President of India.

2. The Governor of a State is competent to withdraw an ordinance issued in the State at

any time

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both l and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (3)

36. Consider the following statements:

1. In the parliamentary system of India, if the President of India returns a Bill for reconsideration of the Houses; and both the Houses pass the Bill again without any amendment and the Bill is again presented to the President, the President has the

power to withhold his assent from the Bill.

2. As per the Constitution of India, the Union Council to Ministers is responsible both to the Lok Sabha and to the Rajya Sabha

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(1) 1only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (4)

37. The well-known case of Keshavananda Bharati vs. the State of Kerala related to which one of the following issues?

(1) Acquiring private land for government

(2) Exploitation of women at workplace

(3) Basic features of the constitution of India.

(4) Reservation of jobs for OBCs in the government service

Ans. (3)

38. Consider the following statements:

1. The British Crown had assumed direct rule in India before the Sepoy Mutiny

2. Lord Canning was made the first Viceroy and Governor General after the end of the rule of the East India Company.

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both l and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (4)

39. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(1) The Government of India Act, 1919 : Minto-Morley Reforms.

(2) The Cripps Mission : Year 1942

(3) The Government of India Act, 1935 : Provincial Autonomy

(4) The Cabinet Mission Plan : Year 1946

Ans. (1)

40. In which century was the ancient Vijayanagar city founded.

(1) l7th century

(2) 16th century

(3) 15th century

(4) 14th century

Ans. (4)

41. The Battle of Kanawha was fought between

(1) Hutna3ktn and Mahmud Lodi

(2) Babur and Ebrahim Lodi

(3) Babur and Rana Sangha

(4) Humayun and Sher Khan

Ans. (3)

42. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order?

(1) Kumara Gupta – Samudra Gupta – Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya

(2) Kumara Gupta – Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya – Samudra Gupta

(3) Samudra Gupta – Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya -Kumara Gupta

(4) Samudra Gupta – Kumara Gupta – Chandra Gupta – Vikramaditya

Ans. (3)

43. Match List -I (City) with List- II (Country) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List- I List- II

(City) (Country)

A. Zagreb 1. Uruguay

B. Bratislava 2. Seychelles

C. Victoria 3. Croatia

D. Montevideo 4. Slovakia

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 1 3 4

(2) 3 4 2 1

(3) 2 4 3 1

(4) 3 1 2 4

Ans. (2)

44. Match List -I (Famous Athletes) with List -II (Event) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List- I List-II

(Famous Athletes) (Event)

A. Florence Griffith Joyner 1. 10,000 m race

B. Michael Johnson 2. 200 m race

C. K Bekele 3. Pole vault

D. S. Bubka 4. l00 m race

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 2 1 4

(2) 4 1 2 3

(3) 3 1 2 4

(4) 4 2 1 3

Ans. (4)

45. Consider the following statements:

1. Income Tax Permanent Account Number (PAN) is a digit alphanumeric number:

2. India is divided into10 zones for postal pin code classification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) l only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both l and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (1)

46. The term ‘Kamikaze’ was used in reference to

(1) The Singapore industries

(2) The Korean athletes

(3) The Japanese pilots

(4) The Chinese musicians

Ans. (3)

47. Match. List-I (Famous Place) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Famous Place) List-II (Country)

A. Monte Carlo 1. England

B. Fleet Street 2. Monaco

C. Great Barrier Reef 3. United States of America

D. Flushing Meadows 4. Australia

Code:

A B C D

(1) 3 1 4 2

(2) 2 4 1 3

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 2 1 4 3

Ans. (1)

48. Which one of the following pairs of Organization and headquarters is not correctly matched?

(1) Asian Development Bank : Manila

(2) Organization of American States (OAS) : Washington

(3) Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) : Minsk

(4) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) : Colombo

Ans. (4)

49. Which one of the following countries does not border Austria?

(1) Germany

(2) Switzerland

(3) Hungary

(4) France

Ans. (4)

50. Consider the following statements:

1. The Presidential Election of the United States of America is held every fifth year

2. The Vice-President of the United States of America is the ex officio President of the House of Representatives.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (2)

OBJECTIVE GENERAL AWARENESS QUESTIONS

1. Match List-I (Country) with list-II (Sea) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Country) (Sea)

A. Yemen 1. Caspian Sea

B. Bulgaria 2. Black Sea

C. Algeria 3. Mediterranean Sea

D. Iran 4. Red sea

Code:

A B C D

(1) 3 1 4 2

(2) 4 2 3 1

(3) 3 2 4 1

(4) 4 1 3 2

Ans. (2)

2. Match List-I (Mineral Resources in India) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Mineral Resources in India) (Location)

A. Kolar Gold Field 1.Bihar

B. Khetri Copper Complex 2. Karnataka

C. High-grade Iron Ore Deposits 3. Tamil Nadu

D. Neyveli Lignite Field 4. Bailadila (Chhattisgarh)

5. Rajasthan

Code:

A B C D

(1) 3 4 1 2

(2) 2 5 4 3

(3) 3 5 4 2

(4) 2 4 1 3

Ans. (2)

3. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of formation of the given

States?

(1) Himachal Pradesh — Sikkim – Gujarat — Haryana

(2) Gujarat — Haryana — Himachal Pradesh — Sikkim

(3) Himachal Pradesh — Haryana — Gujarat — Sikkim

(4) Gujarat — Haryana — Pradesh

Ans. (2)

4. Which one of the-following States is the major producer of cardamom?

(1) Andhra Pradesh

(2) Sikkim

(3) Gujarat

(4) Madhya Pradesh

Ans. (2)

5. Match List-I (Defense Training Institute) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Defense Training Institute) (Location)

A. INS Valsura 1. Mhow

B. Air Force Administrative College 2. Coimbatore

C. Army War College 3. Jamnagar

D. Institute of Military Law 4. Kamptee

Code:

A B C D

(1) 3 4 1 2

(2) 1 2 3 4

(3) 3 2 1 4

(4) 1 4 3 2

Ans. (3)

6. Match List-1 (Training Institutes of Para—Military Forces) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Training Institutes of Para-Military Force) (Location)

A. Internal Security Academy 1. Indore

B. BSF Academy 2. Hakim pet (Secunderabad)

C. Central School of Weapons and Tactics 3. Mt. Abu

D. National Industrial Security Academy 4. Tekanpur

Code:

A B C D

(1) 1 4 3 2

(2) 3 2 1 4

(3) 1 2 3 4

(4) 3 4 1 2

Ans. (2)

7. Match list-I (Venue of Olympic Games) with List-II (Year) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Venue of Olympic Games) (Year)

A. Seoul 1.1992

B. Los Ange1es 2.1984

C. Atlanta 3. 1996

D. Barcelona 4. 1988

Code:

A B C D

(1) 3 2 4 1

(2) 4 2 3 1

(3) 3 1 4 2

(4) 4 1 3 2

Ans. (2)

8. Among the following famous Indian/Pakistani Hockey players, who is the Pakistani player.?

(1) Aslam Sher Khan

(2) Mohammad Shahid

(3) Zafar Iqbal

(4) Shahbaz Ahmed

Ans. (4)

9. Consider the following statements:

1. India won the One-day cricket World Cup in 1983 in Australia.

2. Sunil Gavaskar made his test-cricket debut against England.

3. Anil Kumble took 10 wickets in one inning of a cricket test match against Pakistan

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) l and 2

(2) 3 only

(3) 2 only

(4) 1 and 3

Ans. (2)

10. Match List-I (Indian Sports persons) with List-II (Game/ Sport) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Indian Sports persons) List-II (Game/Sports)

A. Aprana Popat 1. Weightlifting

B. Koneru Humpy 2. Shooting

C. Abhinav Bindra 3. Chess

D. Kunjarani Devi 4. Badminton

5. Hockey

Code:

A B C D

(1) 2 5 4 3

(2) 4 5 2 3

(3) 2 3 4 1

(4) 4 3 2 1

Ans. (4)

11. Consider the following statements:

1. A Chief Metropolitan Magistrate can pass a sentence of death. .

2. A Metropolitan Magistrate can pass a sentence of imprisonment for life.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) l only

(2) 2 only

3) Both 1 and 2

4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (4)

12. Which one among the following has the highest population density in India?

(1) Uttar Pradesh

(2) Bihar

(3) Delhi

(4) Chandigarh

Ans. (3)

13. The Survey of India works ‘under which one of the following ministries of the Government of India?

(1) Ministry of Defense

(2) Ministry of Home Affairs

(3) Ministry of Science and Technology

(4) Ministry of Tourism and Culture

Ans. (2)

14. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act gives constitutional status to the Gram Sabha.

2. Gram Sabha means a body consisting of the persons elected by the villagers above the age of 18 years residing in the area of the Gram Panchayat.

3. The Constitution envisages that. Gram Sabha selects beneficiaries under various schemes of the Central Government undertaken for rural development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) l and 2

(2) 1, 2 only

(3) 3 only

(4) 2 and 3

Ans. (3)

15. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Delhi and Pondicherry have Lieutenant Governors

(2) The Administrator of Chandigarh is designated as the Chief Commissioner

(3) The Legislative Assembly of Pondicherry may make laws with respect to matters enumerated in List II or List III of the Seventh Schedule in so far as these matters are applicable in relation to that Union Territory

(4) The Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi does not require the prior approval of the Central Government for the introduction of any Bill in the Legislative Assembly

Ans. (2)

16. With reference to human nutrition, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Deficiency of Vitamin A can cause the non-functioning of tear-producing glands

(2) Vitamin A is synthesized in the skin in the presence of sunlight

(3) Deficiency of Vitamin B₁ is common in those areas where polished rice is the major food item

(4) Deficiency of Vitamin D causes increased loss of calcium in urine

Ans. (2)

17. Consider the following statements:

In human body.

1. The opening of stomach into intestines is called caecum.

2. The junction of small intestine and large intestine is called pylorus..

3. Colon is much broader than the ileum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 and 2

(2) 2 only

(3) 2 and 3

(4) 3 only

Ans. (1)

18. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Sweating at night and weight loss are symptoms of AIDS

(2) There are no vaccinations against Cholera

(3) Typhoid is caused by a Bacterium

(4) Oral vaccine is available to prevent typhoid

Ans. (4)

19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Vitamin A : Fish liver oil

(2) Vitamin B₁ : Whole cereals

(3) Vitamin C : Milk

(4) Vitamin E : Butter

Ans. (3)

20. Consider the following minerals:

1. Calcium

2. Iron

3. Sodium

Which of the minerals given above are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?

(1) 1 and 2

(2) 2 and 3

(3) 1 and 3

(4) l, 2, and 3

Ans. (2)

21. Consider the following statements:

1. Chickenpox is caused by a bacterium.

2. Japanese Encephalitis (J E) is caused by virus and spread by mosquitoes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both l and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (4)

22. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) The last Tirthankara of Jainas was the contemporary of Gautam Buddha

(2) The last Tirthankara of Jainas was born at Rajgriha

(3) Siddhartha was born at Lumbini

(4) The ancient town Sravasti is the modern Uttar Pradesh

Ans. (2)

23. With whom did the English conclude the Treaty of Sagauli by which Kumaon and Garhwal were ceded to the British rule?

(1) Mughal Emperor

(2) Nawab of Awadh

(3) Rohillas

(4) Gurkhas

Ans. (4)

24. Mir Kasim became the Nawab of Bengal with the help of the English, but why was Mir Jafar reinstated later on?

(1) Mir Jafar bribed the English heavily and made them remove Mir Kasim

(2) Mir Kasim opposed the religion-conversion of natives by the English

(3) Mir Kasim fought with the English as they were flouting the internal trade laws,

causing heavy loss to his income,

(4) The English felt that Mir Kasim had joined hands with the Mughal Emperor to oust the Eng1ish from India

Ans. (3)

25. Who was the Maratha Peshwa when, the Third Battle of Panipat was fought?

(1) Balaji Baji Rao

(2) Narayan Rao

(3) Madhav Rao II

(4) Baji Rao II

Ans. (1)

26. Match List-I (Temple) with List-II (Place) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Temple) List-II (Place)

A. Kandariya Mahadeva Temple 1.Varanasi

B. Adinatha Temple 2. Kangra

C. Brajesvari Devi temple 3. Khajuraho

D.Vishvanath Temple 4. Dilwara, Mt. Abu

Code:

A B C D

(1) 2 1 3 4

(2) 3 4 2 1

(3) 2 4 3 1

(4) 3 1 2 4

Ans. (2)

27. Which one of the following statement is not correct?

(1) During India’s freedom struggle, Independence Day was observed all over India

on 26^th January 1930

(2) Subhash Chandra Bose Inaugurated the Government of Free India in Singapore in 1942

(3) The Muslim League joined the Constituent Assembly in 1945

(4) The Indian Independence Act 1947 was passed in the British Parliament

Ans. (3)

28. Which one among be following was started first during the freedom struggle of India?

(1) Bombay Presidency Association

(2) Indian Association

(3) Madras Native Association

(4) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha

Ans. (3)

29. Consider the following statements:

1. Burma and India were separated under the Government of India Act, 1919.

2. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the abolition of the Indian

Council

3. The ‘Government of India Act, 1935 granted limited franchise to Indian women

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(1) 1 and 2

(2) 2 and 3

(3) 3 only

(4) 1, 2, and 3

Ans. (2)

30. Match List- I (Organization) with List-II (Founder) and se1ect the correct answer using the codes given below the List:

List-I (Organization) List-II (Founder)

A. East India Association 1. Dadabhai Naoroji

B. Satya Shodhak Samaj 2. Devenaranath Tagore

C. Servants of Indian Society 3. Gopa1 Krishna Gokhale

D Tattivabodhini Sabha 4. Jyotirao Govindrao Phule

Code:

A B C D

(1) 1 2 3 4

(2) 3 2 1 4

(3) 1 4 3 2

(4) 3 4 1 2

Ans. (3)

31 The great emperor Kanishka belonged to which dynasty?

(1) Maurya

(2) Vardhana

(3) Kushan

(4) Gupta

Ans. (3)

32. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order?

(1) Khilji Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty — Lodhi Dynasty— Sun Dynasty

(2) Lodhi Dynasty — Sun Dynasty —Khilji Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty

(3) Khilji Dynasty — Sun Dynasty — Lodhi Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty

(4) Lodhi Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty Khilji Dynasty—Sun Dynasty

Ans. (1)

33. Consider the following statements

1. Function of flywheel in an engine Is to reduce fluctuations of its speed.

2. Octane 93 is a rating of diesel as fuel.

3. Gyroscopic principle is used In ships and aircraft.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) l and 2

(2) l and 3

(3) 2 and 3

(4) 1, 2, and 3

Ans. (2)

34. Consider the following statements:

1. Modem is used to link a computer with a telephone line so that data can be transmitted at high speeds from one computer to another.

2. Pentium chip performs the function of RAM in a computer CPU.

3.Giga represents 10⁹

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 and 3

(2) 1 and 2

(3) 3 only

(4) 1, 2, and 3

Ans. (4)

35. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) So far there have been three proclamations of Emergency in whole of India

(2) A written communication of the decision of the Union Cabinet is an essential precondition for the issue of proclamation of Emergency In whole of India by the President of India

(3) Under no circumstances could the enforcement of Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 of the Constitution of India be denied even during Emergency.

(4) If the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving the proclamation of Emergency or its continuance, it shall be revoked within two months

Ans. (4)

36. Consider the following statements:

1. A new chapter on the Fundamental Duties of citizens was inserted in the Constitution of India by a Constitutional Amendment Act.

2.A new article dealing with the Right to Education regarding providing free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years was inserted in the Constitution of India by a Constitutional Amendment Act.

3. The Right to Property has been omitted as a Fundamental right and made only a legal right.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) 1, 2, and 3

(2) 1 and 2

(3) 2 and 3

(4) 1 and 3

Ans. (4)

37. Consider the following statements:

1. Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill.

2. Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants,

3. Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 1 and 2

(3) 2 and 3

(4) l, 2, and 3

Ans. (4)

38. Which one of the following is the, correct statement?

(1) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India holds office during the pleasure of the President of India

(2) The comptroller and Auditor General of India is ineligible for any other office under the Government of India or any State Government after he has ceased to hold his office

(3) The salary and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India are

determined by the Ministry of Finance

(4) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Ans. (2)

39. Consider the following statements:

l. Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution.

2. Vice-President of India is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and holds

the Office of the Vice President of India for a period of six years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (1)

40. Which one of the following States shares boundaries with the maximum number of other States of India?

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Maharashtra

(3) Assam

(4) Bihar

Ans. (1)

41. Which. of the following is a cash crop?

(1) Wheat

(2) Mullets

(3) Rice

(4) Rubber

Ans. (4)

42. Match List-I (Temple/Heritage Site) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Temple/Heritage Site) List-II (State)

A. Brihadeswara Temple 1. Orissa

B. Dilawara Temple 2. Tamil Nadu

C. Lingaraja Temple 3. Karnataka

D. Hampi Group of monuments 4. Rajasthan

5. Kerala

Code:

A B C D

(1) 1 3 5 4

(2) 2 4 1 3

(3) 2 3 1 4

(4) 1 4 5 3

Ans. (2)

43. Which one of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations Organization?

(1) International Court of Justice

(2) Economic and Social Council

(3) Trusteeship Council

(4) Food and Agriculture Organization

Ans. (4)

44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

A. Chilka Lake 1. Kerala

B. Alappuzha 2. Orissa

C. Fort Aguda 3. Port Blair

D. Cellular Jail National Memorial 4. Goa

5. Hyderabad

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 3 4 5 2

(3) 2 4 5 3

(4) 3 1 4 2

Ans. (1)

45. Consider the following statements:

1. Bengal was separated into two provinces during the term of Lord Minto as the Viceroy of India.

2. Simon Commission came to India while Lord Irwin was the Viceroy of India

3. The Government Of India Act of 1919 is also known as Montagu – Chelmsford

Reforms.

Which of these statements are correct?

(1) 1, 2 and 3

(2) l and 2

(3) 1 and 3

(4) 2 and 3

Ans. (4)

46. Which one of the following is not an official language of the United Nations Organization?

(1) Arabic

(2) Russian

(3) Chinese

(4) German

Ans. (4)

47. Consider the following statements

1. Polar diameter of the earth is about 40km. larger than its equatorial diameter.

2. The most abundant element in the earth’s crust is oxygen.

3. On summer solstice sun’s rays fall vertically on the Tropic of Cancer.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(1) 1, 2, and 3

(2) l and 3

(3) 2 and 3

(4) 2 only

Ans. (2)

48. When Cripps Mission came to India, who among the following was the Viceroy of India?

(1) Lord Irwin

(2) Lord Linlithgow

(3) Lord Wavell

(4) Lord Willington

Ans. (2)

49. Consider the following statements:

1. India gave up the status of Dominion on 15th August, 1947.

2. The Government of India Act of 1935 was amended and made the provisional Constitution of India till the Constituent Assembly of India framed a new Constitution.

3. Constituent Assembly functioned only as a Constitution-making body and

not as a provisional Parliament of India.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(1) 1, 2, and 3

(2) 2 and 3

(3) 1 and 3

(4) 2 only

Ans. (2)

50. Consider the following statements:

1. Indian Railways have seven zones.

2. Jan Shatabdi trains were introduced in the 150th years of the Indian Railways.

3. The Research, Design and Standards Organization which functions as a consultant to the Indian Railways in technical matters is located at Allahabad.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(l) l and 2

(2) 1, 2, and 3

(3) 2 only

(4) l and 3

Ans. (3)

OBJECTIVE GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS

1. Railway rolling stock is not manufactured at

(a) Ahmedabad

(b) Madras

(c) Kapurthala

(d) Varanasi

Ans. (a)

2. Which industry in India was worst affected be cause of the partition?

(a) Paper and Iron

(b) Cotton and Sugar

(c) Jute and Cotton

(d) Engineering and Cement

Ans. (c)

3. A large sized nitrogenous plant based on the gas supplied through Hazira-Bijapur-Jagdishpur pipeline is being set up at

(a) Hazira

(b) Bijapur

(c) Jagdishpur

(d) Babrala

Ans. (a)

4. Fazilka-Abohar region is noted for

(a) luxurious growth of cotton

(b) prosperous cotton textile industry

(c) cottage and handicrafts industry

(d) None of these

Ans. (b)

5. In which industry is sal wood used mostly?

(a) Railway sleepers

(b) Matches

(c) Paper

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

6. Which of the following is the principal reason for the concentration of heavy industries in the South Bihar region?

(a) Availability of cheap labour

(b) Availability of capital

(c) Availability of raw materials in the region

(d) Nearness to Calcutta

Ans. (c)

7. Out of the following, India earns the maximum foreign exchange from the export of

(a) leather goods

(b) engineering goods

(c) handicrafts

(d) electronic goods

Ans. (c)

8. Kandla, situated on the Gulf of Kachchh, is well known for which of the following?

(a) Cutting and polishing of diamonds

(b) Export processing zone

(c) Centre for marine food products

(d) Traditional art and craft centre

(e) Ship building industry

Ans. (b)

9. The main centre of diamond cutting industry in India is

(a) Panna

(b) Kolar

(c) Surat

(d) Agra

(e) Jaipur

Ans. (e)

Please verify as it may be SURAT also

10. The Himalayan region inspite of having raw material for paper and pulp industry could not develop so far. Which of the following is the most important factor for this?

(a) Non-availability of hydroelectric power in the area

(b) Less demand of paper in the market

(c) Non-availability of cheap labour in the area

(d) Poor means of transport in the region

Ans. (d)

11. As per the latest figures available, out of the total sugar production in India, Maharashtra contributes about

(a) 23%

(b) 17%

(c) 40%

(d) 32%

Ans. (a)

12. Where is the Hindustan Shipyard located?

(a) Cochin

(b) Vishakhapatnam

(c) Bombay

(d) Calcutta

Ans. (b)

13. The ‘satellite freight city’ is being developed near which of the following cities?

(a) Calcutta

(b) Bangalore

(c) Kandla

(d) Gurgaon

(e) New Bombay

Ans. (d)

14. Which of the following states accounts for the largest share of industrial production and capital investment?

(a) West Bengal

(b) Karnataka

(c) Gujarat

(d) Maharashtra

Ans. (d)

15. Consider the following statements:

The Rourkela steel plant obtains

1. hydel power from the Hirakud dam

2. coking coal from Jharia coalfields

3. iron ore from Baba Budon hills

Of these statements, the correct ones are:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

16. A group of tourists is interested in visiting some beaches in India. Which of the following groups of cities would you suggest?

A. Calcutta, Bangalore, Baroda

B. Ahmedabad, Ranchi, Hyderabad

C. Bombay, Goa, Madras

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(c) Only C

(d) Both A and B

(e) Both A and C

Ans. (c)

17. Which of the following cities is situated on the bank of river Saryu?

(a) Patna

(b) Ayodhya

(c) Varanasi

(d) Allahabad

Ans. (b)

18. India conducted its first underground nuclear test

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Gujarat

(c) Kerala

(d) Karnataka

Ans. (a)

19. Of the following cities, which one is situated along the banks of river Sabarmati?

(a) Patna

(b) Hyderabad

(c) Nasik

(d) Ahmedabad

Ans. (d)

20. Which of the following states in India is the largest in area?

(a) Maharashtra

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(c) West Bengal

(d) Madhya Pradesh

Ans. (d)

21. Which of the following cities is known as ‘Pink City’?

(a) Gwalior

(b) Lucknow

(c) Hyderabad

(d) Alwar

(e) Jaipur

Ans. (e)

22. Indian Standard Time is the time at which of the following longitudes East of Greenwich?

(a) 30°

(b) 68°

(c) 82 .5 °

(d) 97°

Ans. (c)

23. Which of the following places is not associated with India’s space programme?

(a) Bangalore

(b) Arvi

(c) Trombay

(d) Sriharikota

Ans. (c)

24. Garo and Khasi tribes are mainly found in

(a) Manipur

(b) Meghalaya

(c) Mizoram

(d) Chhota Nagpur

Ans. (b)

25. In terms of the area of the countries, India ranks in the world.

(a) 5^th

(b) 6^th

(c) 7^th

(d) 11^th

Ans. (c)

26. Which is the most urbanized state in India?

(a) Punjab

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Gujarat

(d) Maharashtra

Ans. (d)

27. In addition to the entire Union Territory of Delhi, the National Capital Region covers parts of the states of

(a) Haryana, Himachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh

(b) Haryana, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh

(c) Haryana, Rajasthan and Punjab

(d) Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh

Ans. (d)

28. ‘Ghotul’, a tribal youth dormitory is found among the

(a) Oraon of Bihar

(b) Bhutia of West Bengal

(c) Garo of North East India

(d) M of Madhya Pradesh

Ans. (d)

29. Which one of the following organizations is responsible for production of topographical sheets?

(a) Geological survey of India (GSI)

(b) National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation (NATMO)

(c) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)

(d) Survey of India (501)

Ans. (d)

30. In terms of area, which of the following is the smallest state in India?

(a) Sikkim

(b) Goa

(c) Nagaland

(d) Tripura

Ans. (b)

31. India’s oldest planetarium is located at

(a) Calcutta

(b) Bombay

(c) Patna

(d) Ahmedabad

Ans. (a)

32. Consider the following satellites put into orbit by India

1. Bhaskara

2. INSAT-1 B

3. Rohini

4. APPLE

Among these, geostationary satellites include

(a) l, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (c)

33. What is SLV-3?

(a) Communication satellite

(b) India’s space launching vehicle

(c) Space launching pad

(d) None of these

Ans. (b)

34. Which one of the following is the most important reason for the establishment of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thumba?

(a) The sea is near to the place in the East, West and South directions.

(b) It is a place near to a city in India, which is nearest to the geographic Equator.

(c) It is situated on the Geomagnetic Equator

(d) Outer space near Thumba exhibits queer atmospheric phenomena.

Ans. (a)

35. The first submarine built by India is

(a) INS Shalki

(b) INS Ganga

(c) INS Godavari

(d) INS Himgiri

Ans. (a)

36. The satellite Aryabhatta was built at

(a) Hassan

(b) Thumba

(c) Bangalore

(d) Sriharikota

Ans. (c)

37. In which of the following regions is ‘Dandakaranya’ located?

(a) Uttar Pradesh and Orissa

(b) Maharashtra, Orissa and M.P.

(c) Nepal and Bihar

(d) Orissa, MR and Andhra Pradesh

Ans. (d)

38. Onge tribe is mainly settled in which of the following States / Union Territories?

(a) Bihar

(b) Nagaland

(c) Lakshadweep

(d) Meghalaya

(e) Andaman & Nicobar

Ans. (d)

39. Which of the following places is not associated with the launching of the space satellites?

(a) Kourou

(b) Sriharikota

(c) Cape Kennedy

(d) Hassan

Ans. (d)

40. INSAT – 2B was launched from

(a) Sriharikota

(b) Thumba

(c) Moscow

(d) Kourou

Ans. (d)

41. What is the percentage of geographical area of India in the world area?

(a) 2.3%

(b) 3.2%

(c) 4%

(d) 5%

Ans. (a)

42. India- built remote sensing satellite Bhaskara II was put into space with the help of

(a) an intercosmos rocket from a soviet cosmodrome

(b) an SLV-3 rocket from Thumba

(c) an Ariana from French Guiana

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

43. Which one of the following is known as the Pearl City?

(a) Cochin

(b) Tuticorin

(c) Masulipatnam

(d) Rameshwaram

Ans. (b)

44. In which of the following places is India’s second satellite launching station being

developed?

(a) Sriharikota

(b) Trombay

(c) Hyderabad

(d) Vishakhapatnam

(e) Balasore

Ans. (e)

45. The highest number of tribal population in Tamil Nadu is

(a) Todas

(b) Irulas

(c) Kodas

(d) Malayalis

Ans. (a)

46. Kukis belong to which state?

(a) Nagaland

(b) Tripura

(c) Manipur

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

(e) Mizoram

Ans. (c)

47. Which one of the following pairs is not correct?

(a) Sriharikota – India’s satellite launching centre

(b) Bangalore – India’s space application centre

(c) Thumba - India’s first earth satellite station

(d) SLV-3 - India’s four stage rocket

Ans. (c)

48. In Mizoram, the settlement pattern is mostly of ‘linear type’ along the ridges because

(a) the ridges are cooler than the valleys

(b) the valleys are densely forested

(c) the valleys are cooler than the ridges

(d) accessibility is easier on the ridge tops

Ans. (c)

49.The city of Surat is situated on the bank of the river

(a) Krishna

(b) Kaveri

(c) Tapti

(d) Godavari

Ans. (c)

50. The first district in India to have telephones in all its villages is

(a) Dakshina Kannada

(b) Nellore

(c) Gurdaspur

(d) Ahmednagar

Ans. (a)

UPSC GENERAL ABILITY QUESTIONS

1. Which one of the following countries has its Military base in the Indian Ocean island Diego Garcia?

(1) France

(2) Russia

(3) United Kingdom

(4) United States of America

Ans. (4)

2. Who of the following is the author of the book Confessions of a Swadeshi Reformer: My Years as Finance Minister?

(1) P. Chidambaram

(2) Manmohan Singh

(3) Jaswant Singh

(4) Yashwant Sinha

Ans. (4)

3. Consider thee following statements:

a. BrahMos missile can fly at velocities beyond Mach 2.

b. BrahMos missile has a maximum range of l000 km

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(l) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (1)

4. For outstanding lifetime achievement in which one of the following areas is the Abel Prize, an international prize awarded?

(1) Ecology and Environment

(2) Medical Science

(3) Mathematics

(4) Biotechnology and Genetic Engineering

Ans. (3)

5. Who of the following led the opposition of the Indian Universities Act of 1904?

(1) Aurobindo Ghosh and Lala Lajpat Rai

(2) Surendra Nath Banerjee and Pherozeshah Mehta

(3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Dadabhai Naoroji

(4) W. C Banerjee and R. C. Dutt

Ans. (2)

6. With which of the following broad areas is the concept of ‘Six Sigma’ associated?

(1) Quality control in manufacturing

(2) Path tracing of satellites

(3) Pollution control of automobiles

(4) Printing technology

Ans. (1)

7. Consider the following statements:

a. Organizations of Village Panchayats is included in the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India

b. Freedom as the payments of taxes for promotion of any particular religion as included in the Directive Principles of State Policy

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (4)

8. Oliver Kahn is one the great modern sportsmen. He is in which one of the following games?

(1) Hockey

(2) Football

(3) Golf

(4) Basketball

Ans. (2)

9. Venue of 16th Asian Games, 2010 is?

(1) Kuala Lumpur

(2) Guangzhou

(3) Hanoi

(4) Ho Chi Minh City

Ans. (2)

10. Tasmania is a part of which one of the following countries?

(1) Malaysia

(2) Indonesia

(3) Australia

(4) Thailand

Ans. (3)

11. Consider the following statements:

a. A person is eligible for election as the President of India only if he/she has completed 40 years of age.

b. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college whose composition is similar to the electoral college of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (4)

12. Which one of the following cities of the USA is most Southwards located?

(1) Dallas

(2) San Francisco

(3) Miami

(4) Los Angeles

Ans. (3)

13. The Headquarters of which of the following is located in Paris?

(l) NATO

(2) OECD

(3) European Commission

(4) UNIDO

Ans. (2)

14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Town) (Nearest National Park/Wildlife Sanctuary)

A. Alwar 1. Ghatigaon

B. Bhopal 2. Pench

C. Gwalior 3. Sariska

D. Nagpur 4. Vanvihar

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 4 1 3

(2) 2 1 4 3

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 3 1 4 2

Ans. (3)

15. From North to South, which one of the following sequences of hills is correct?

(1) Dafla Hills-Mik Ir Hills-Jaintia Hills

(2) Dafla Hills-Jaintia Hills Mik Ir Hills

(3) Mik Ir Hills Dafla Hills- Jaintia Hills

(4) Mik Ir Hills-Jaintia Hills-Dafla Hills

Ans. (3)

16.

What does the shaded portion in the map given above represent?

(1) Coniferous forests

(2) Alpine forests

(3) High altitude vegetations.

(4) Temperate grasslands

Ans. (4)

17. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of petroleum in South America?

(1) Brazil

(2) Venezuela

(3) Colombia

(4) Argentina

Ans. (2)

18.

In the map given above four shaded areas are marked as a, b, c and d. Which of these are tea growing areas?

(1) a, b and c only

(2) a, c and d only

(3) b and d only

(4) a, b, c and d

Ans. (2)

19. With reference to Lord Cornwall’s ‘Permanent Settlement’, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) It created a limited proprietary right of Zarmindars on the land.

(2) It had taken away the Magisterial powers of Zamindars.

(3) It had left no police work for Zamindars.

(4) It recognized the rights of tenants due to which landlords could never oust them.

Ans. (4)

20. Which of the following Mughal Emperors built the Jama Masjid of Delhi?

(1) Humayun

(2) Akbar

(2) Jahangir

(4) Shahjehan

Ans. (4)

21. Nadir Shah attacked Delhi during the reign of:

(1) Ahmed Shah

(2) Farrukh Siyar

(3) Jahandar Shah.

(4) Muhammad Shah

Ans. (4)

22. Where is the National industrial Security Academy of the CISF located?

(1) Hyderabad

(2) Mount Abu

(3) Tekanpur

(4) Gwaldam

Ans. (1)

23. The Constituent Assemble was set up under the

(1) Cripps Mission

(2) Caninet Mission Plan

(3) Wavell Plan

(4) Nehru Report

Ans. (2)

24. Which vitamin is essential for coagulation of blood ?

(1) A

(2) D

(3) E

(4) K

Ans. (4)

25. CAPART is engaged primarily with which one of the following in India?

(1) e-governance

(2) Share market

(3) Rural development

(4) Pollution control

Ans. (3)

26. The elements essentially present in Sun are

(1) Oxygen and Nitrogen.

(2) Carbon and Oxygen

(3) Hydrogen and Helium

(4) Hydrogen and Oxygen

Ans. (3)

27. Which-one of the following pairs is not corect1y matched?

(1) Ghadar Movement : Sohan Singh Bhakna

(2) Kisan movement : Lala Lajpat Rai

(3) Hindustan Republican Association : .Sachindranath Sanyal

(4) Hindu Dharma Sanrakshini Sabha : Madan Mohan Malaviya

Ans. (2)

28. Consider the following statements:

1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru hoisted the National flag on 31^st December, 1929 at Lahore

2. Independence Day was observed on 26^th January, 1930 all over India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both l and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (3)

29. In humans, which one of the following causes tetanus?

(1) Bacteria

(2) Fungus

(3) Protozoan

(4) Virus

Ans. (1)

30. Consider the following statements:

1. Sundarbans delta is a very large mangrove forest.

2. Sundarbans delta lies at the mouth of the Ganges.

3. Sundarbans National Park has been recognized as a World Heritage Site

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) l and 2 only

(2) 2 and 3 only

(3) l and 3 only

(4) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (4)

31. Why does one feel muscular fatigue after strenuous physical work?

(1) Accumulation of urea in the muscles

(2) Accumulation of lactic acid in the-muscles

(3) Loss of glucose from muscles

(4) Lack of Oxygen in muscles

Ans. (2)

32. Which one of the following organs produces urea in the human body?

(1) Kidney

(2) Liver

(3) Spleen

(4) Urinary bladder

Ans. (1)

33. In most computer systems, how many binary bits are there in a byte?

(1) 8

(2) 16

(3) 32

(4) 64

Ans. (1)

34. Match List -I (Mineral) with List -II (Main Location of Reserves) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Mineral) (Main Location of Reserves)

A. Tungsten 1. Andhra Pradesh

B. Nickel 2. Kerala

C. Zircon 3. Rajasthan

D. Mica 4. Orissa

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 4 2 1

(2) 2 1 3 4

(3) 3 1 2 4

(4) 2 4 3 1

Ans. (1)

35. Match List –l (Book) with List-II (Writer) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Book) (Writer)

A. The Good Earth 1. Khushwant Singh

B. Untouchable 2. Kamala Markandaya

C. Nectar in a Sieve 3. Pearl S. Buck

D. Train to Pakistan 4. Mulk Raj Anand and

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 4 3 1

(2) 3 1 2 4

(3) 2 1 3 4

(4) 3 4 2 1

Ans. (4)

36. How is Norman Borlaug well known ?

(1) Agricultural scientist who won the Nobel Prize for Peace

(2) Made substantial contribution to research in cancer

(3) Famous humorist and poet

(4) A famous journalist

Ans. (1)

37. Match List- I (Famous Person) with List-II (Area) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Famous Person) (Area)

A. E .C. G. Sudarshan 1. Economics

B. P. K. Sethi 2. Long-distance swimming

C. Mihar Sen 3. Orthopedic surgery

D. I. G. Patel 4. Physics

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 4 2 3 1

(2) 1 3 2 4

(3) 4 3 2 1

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (3)

38. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the population density in the given States/Union Territories/NCR Delhi?

(1) Delhi > Chandigarh > Uttar Pradesh > West Bengal

(2) Chandigarh > Delhi > West Bengal> Uttar Pradesh

(3) Chandigarh > Delhi > Uttar Pradesh

(4) Delhi > Chandigarh > West Bengal > Uttar Pradesh

Ans. (4)

39. Match List-II (Factory) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Factory) List-II (Location)

A. Rail Coach Factory 1. Bangalore

B. Integral Coach Factory 2. Varanasi

C. Wheel and Axle Plant 3. Kapurthala

D. Diesel Loco Works 4. Perambur

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 4 1 2

(2) 2 1 4 3

(3) 3 1 4 2

(4) 2 4 1 3

Ans. (1)

40. Which one of the following states accounts for maximum production of gold in India? (1) Karnataka

(2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Goa

(4) Tamil Nadu

Ans. (1)

41. Which one of the following is not located in Maharashtra?

(1) Goral Beach

(2) Alibaug Beach

(3) Erangal Beach

(4) Devbagh Beach

Ans. (3)

42. Relevance ranking is a term associated with which one of the following?

(1) Search engines in Internet

(2) Critics ranking of Hollywood picture

(3) Evaluation process used in purchase of aircrafts

(4) A strategy used in warfare

Ans. (2)

43. Trinidad and Tobago got independent in 1962 from which one of the following countries?

(1) Argentina

(2) Britain

(3) Spain

(4) Portugal

Ans. (2)

44. Match List- I (Institute) with List- II (Location) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Institute) (Location)

A. Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel Management 1. Bangalore

B. Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology 2. Pune

C. Indian Institute of Astrophysics 3. Gwalior

D. Indian Institute of Astrophysics 4. Hyderabad

5. Mumbai

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 2 5 1

(2) 5 1 4 2

(3) 3 1 5 2

(4) 5 2 4 1

Ans. (3)

45. Who among the following was associated with the ‘Great Arc’- one of the biggest survey exercises in the world?

(1) William Lambton

(2) Adam Smith

(3) E. Raisz

(4) Karl Scheibler

Ans. (4)

46. In which one of the following States is the Falta Special Economic Zone located?

(1) Kerala

(2) Gujarat

(3) Orissa

(4)West Benga1

Ans. (4)

47. Consider the following statements:

1. Pattadakal Group of Monuments have been recognized as a World Heritage Site

2. .Pattadakal Group of Monuments were built by the Chola Dynasty of Southern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) l only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (1)

Direction (48-50) .The following three (3) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and-select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Code:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but, R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Ans. (4)

48. Assertion (A): In the year 1919, M.A. Jinnah and M. M. Malaviya resigned their membership of Central Legislative Council

Reason (R): In the year 1919, the Government of India passed the Rowlatt Act, which was opposed by all the Indian members of the Legislative Council

Ans. (3)

49. Assertion (A): Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from the office of the President of the Indian National Congress in the year 1989.

Reason (R): Subhash Chandra Bose left the congress to form the Indian independence League in South-East Asia.

Ans. (3)

50. Assertion (A): In the Indian system, the Executive cannot impose any tax without any legislative sanction

Reason (R): It is expressly laid down by our constitution that no tax can be imposed unless it is authorized by an Approproriation Act

Ans. (3)