List of sub-national animals

Australia

State	State Animals
Western Australia	Numbat
	Black Swan
South Australia	Hairy-Nosed Wombat
	Leafy sea dragon
	Piping Shrike (unofficial)
Victoria	Leadbeater's Possum
	Weedy Seadragon
	Helmeted Honeyeater
Tasmania	Tasmanian Devil (Unofficial)
Australian Capital Territory	Gang-gang cockatoo
New South Wales	Platypus
	Blue groper
	Kookaburra
Queensland	Koala
	Barrier Reef Anemonefish (Clown Fish)
	Brolga
Northern Territory	Red Kangaroo
	Wedge-tailed Eagle

Brazil

Province/Territory	Animal
Acre	Sharp-shinned Hawk
	Ring-tailed Coati
Amazonas	Harpy Eagle
Pernambuco	Giant Anteater
Mato Grosso	Roseate Spoonbill
	Capybara
Rio de Janeiro	Harpy Eagle
Rondônia	Jaguar
Roraima	Great Egret

Canada

Province/Territory	Animal
Alberta	Great Horned Owl
	Grizzly Bear
British Columbia	Steller's Jay
	Sphynx
Prince Edward Island	Blue Jay
	Arctic Wolf
Newfoundland and Labrador	Atlantic Puffin
	Labrador Retriever
	Newfoundland
New Brunswick	Black-capped Chickadee
	Beaver
Manitoba	Great Grey Owl
	Common Raccoon
Nova Scotia	Caribou
	Osprey
Nunavut	Rock Ptarmigan (Aqilgiq, ᐊᕐᑭᒡᒋᖅ ᐊᑕᔪᓕᒃ) Lagopus mutus[1]
	Canadian Inuit Dog (Qimmiq, ᕿᒻᒥᖅ) Canis Familiaris Borealis[2]
Ontario	Beluga
	Common Loon
Saskatchewan	Sharp-tailed Grouse
	River Otter
Yukon	Common Raven
	Moose

People's Republic of China

Provinces and Territories (Autonomous regions)	Provincial Animals
Guangdong[citation needed]	Giant Panda (territorial animal of Guangdong)
	Silver Pheasant (territorial bird of Guangdong)
Hainan	Hainan Partridge
Ningxia	Blue-eared Pheasant
	Red Panda
Qinghai	Black-necked Crane
Shaanxi	Crested Ibis
Shanxi	Brown Eared Pheasant

Denmark

Country	National animal
Faroe Islands	Mouflon

India

State	Animal
Andhra Pradesh	Blackbuck
Arunachal Pradesh	Gayal
Assam	One-horned rhino
Bihar	Gaur
Chhattisgarh	Wild Buffalo
Goa	Gaur
Gujarat	Asiatic lion
Haryana	Blackbuck
Himachal Pradesh	snow leopard
Jammu and Kashmir	Kashmir stag
Jharkhand	Indian Elephant
Karnataka	Indian Elephant
Kerala	Indian Elephant
Lakshadweep	Butterfly Fish
Meghalaya	Clouded Leopard
Madhya Pradesh	Barasingha
Maharashtra	Indian Giant Squirrel
Manipur	Sangai
Mizoram	Hoolock gibbon
Nagaland	Gaur
Orissa	Indian Elephant
Punjab	Blackbuck
Rajasthan	Chinkara
Sikkim	Red Panda
Tamil Nadu	Nilgiri Tahr
Tripura	Phayre's Langur
Uttarakhand	Musk deer
Uttar Pradesh	Swamp Deer
West Bengal	Royal Bengal Tiger

Indonesia

Country	National animal
Java	Saltwater Crocodile/Great White Shark
Maluku	Asian Elephant
Sumatera	Red Junglefowl
Lesser Sunda Islands	Dolphin

Japan

Country	National animal
Japan	Koi, Green Pheasant
Home Nation	National animal
Aichi	Great Dane
Akita	Akita Inu
Aomori	Bewick's Swan
Chiba	Coho Salmon
	Bream
	Meadow Bunting
Ehime	Copper Pheasant
	Humpback Whale
	Cairn Terrier
	Garibaldi
Fukui	Dusky Thrush
Fukushima	Brown Bear
	Narcissus Flycatcher
Fukuoka	Appaloosa
Gifu	Rock Ptarmigan
Gunma	Copper Pheasant
	Sweetfish
Hiroshima	Okami (Okami, おかみ) Canis lupus
	Red-throated Diver
	Common Dolphin
	Basilosaurus
Hokkaidō	Red-crowned Crane
Hyōgo	Oriental White Stork
	Japanese spider crab
	Great Dane
Ibaraki	Manatee
Ishikawa	Golden Eagle
	Tabby cat
	Horse
	Kishu
Iwate	Common Pheasant
Kagawa	Lesser Cuckoo
Kagoshima	Lidth's Jay
Kanagawa	Orca
	Common Gull
	Japanese Rat Snake
	Sika Deer
Kōchi	Fairy Pitta
Kumamoto	Atlantic tarpon
	Pug
Kyoto	Raccoon Dog
	Streaked Shearwater
	Red Fox
	Humuhumunukunukuāpuaʻa
	Japanese giant salamander
	Butterfly Monarch
Nagasaki	Mandarin Duck
Nagano	Rock Ptarmigan
	Japanese Serow
Nara	Japanese Robin
Niigata	Japanese crested Ibis
Miyagi	Wild Geese (Prefecture bird)
	European Mantis
Mie	Japanese rhinoceros beetle
Oita	Japanese White-eye
Okayama	Lesser Cuckoo
	Bowhead Whale
Okinawa	Okinawa Woodpecker
Osaka	Japanese Bobtail
	Bull-headed Shrike
Saga	Japanese Squirrel
Shimane	Whooper Swan
Shizuoka	Tajima cattle
Shiga	Nipponosaurus
Tochigi	Puli
Tokyo	Boar
	Black-headed Gull
	Tokyo-X
Tokushima	White Egret (Ardea/Egretta)
	Dachshund
Tottori	Nomura's Jellyfish
Toyama	Beluga
Yamagata	Dairy cow
	Mandarin Duck
Wakayama	European honey bee
Yamanashi	Sperm Whale
Yamaguchi	Japanese Black Bear
	7-spotted Ladybug (Prefecture insect)
	Hooded Crane
	Atlantic cod
	Sika Deer

Netherlands

Country	National animal
Bonaire	Flamingo

Malaysia

Province, Territory and state	Provincial animals and birds
Sarawak	Rhinoceros Hornbill
Sabah	Malayan Tiger
Perak
Negeri Sembilan
Malacca	Malayan Tapir
Selangor	White-bellied Sea Eagle

Mexico

Country	National animal
Chihuahua	Chihuahua
Tabasco	Bull

Philippines

Country	National animal
Philippines	Carabao Also the Philippine Eagle, Bangus, Carabao
Home Nation	National animal
Cebu	Tiger
Bohol	Unicorn, Red Deer

Pakistan

Province, Territory and state	Provincial animals and birds
Islamabad Capital Territory	Rhesus Macaque (territorial animal of Islamabad)
	Rose-ringed Parakeet (territorial bird of Islamabad)
Azad Jammu and Kashmir	Kashmir stag (state animal)
	Black-necked crane (state bird)
Afghania (Pakistan)	Kabul Markhor (provincial animal)
	White-crested Kalij Pheasant (provincial bird)
22px Balochistan (Pakistan)	Dromedary camel (provincial animal)
	Houbara bustard (provincial bird)
Sindh	Sindh Ibex (provincial animal)
	Sind Sparrow (provincial bird)
Punjab (Pakistan)	Urial (provincial animal)
	Peacock (provincial bird)
Gilgit-Baltistan	Yak (territorial animal)
	Shaheen (territorial bird)

Romania

Historic Region	National animal
Transylvania	Eagle
Muntenia	Raven
Moldova	Aurochs
Dobrogea	Dolphin
Banat	Lion

Spain

Country	National animal
Spain	Bull
Home Nation	National animal
Catalonia	Catalan donkey
Basque Country	Latxa Sheep
	Pottoka
	Betizu Cow
Navarre	Latxa Sheep
	Boar
Valencian Community	Bat
Galicia	Blonde Galician Cow
Cantabria	Tudanca Cow
Asturias	Goat
Extremadura	White Stork

United Kingdom

Country	National animal
United Kingdom	Lion, and more modernly Bulldog Also the European Robin, Red Deer & Red Fox
Home Nation	National animal
England	Lion
Scotland	Unicorn
	Scottish Terrier
Cornwall	Cornish Chough[3]
Wales	Red Dragon

Computer Knowledge Questions

1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a ___ wavy underline appears below the word.
(A) red
(B) green
(C) blue
(D) black
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
2. The _____ button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or actions.
(A) Search
(B) Cut
(C) Document
(D) Undo
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered ___
(A) a formula
(B) text
(C) a name
(D) a title
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
4. ________ Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of data.
(A) Word processing
(B) Presentation graphics
(C) Database Management Systems
(D) Electronic Spreadsheet
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
5. A _________ represent approximately one billion memory locations.
(A) kilobyte
(B) megabyte
(C) gigabyte
(D) terabyte
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
6. ______ cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells.
(A) Formatting
(B) Merging
(C) Embedding
(D) Splitting
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
7. The operating system is the most common type of ______________ software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are ____
(A) Primary-clicking
(B) pointing
(C) Double-clicking
(D) Secondary-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called ___
(A) cells
(B) sheets
(C) block lines
(D) gridlines
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, __________ to erase to the right of the insertion point.
(A) press the left mouse key
(B) double-click the right mouse key
(C) press the BACKSPACE key
(D) press the delete key
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:
A provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
B manage the central processing unit (CPU).
C manage memory and storage.
D enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans (D)
12. During the boot process, the ____________ looks for the system files.
A CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
AnS (B)
13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
A GUIs
B Icons
C Menus
D Windows
Answer: C
14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the same time.
A Multitasking
B Streamlining
C Multiuser
D Simulcasting
Answer: A
15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of immediate attention is called an:
A action.
B event.
C interrupt.
D activity.
Answer: C
16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor’s attention.
A CPU
B slice of time
C stack
D event
Answer: B
17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as:
A application programming interfaces (APIs).
B complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
C device drivers.
D bootstrap loaders.
Answer: A
18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
A point-and-click
B user-friendly
C command-driven
D Mac
Answer: C
19. An interrupt handler is a(n):
A location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
B peripheral device.
C utility program.
D special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Answer: D
20. A spooler is a(n):
A location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
B print job.
C program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
D message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Answer: C
21. Virtual memory is typically located:
A on a floppy disk.
B in the CPU.
C in a flash card.
D on the hard drive.
Answer: D
22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
A maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
B hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
C prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
D allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Answer: B
23. The definition of thrashing is:
A swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
B insufficient hard disk space.
C too many processors being managed by the operating system.
D inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Answer: A
24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
A Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
B Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
C Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
D Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Answer: B
25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
A configuration.
B accessibility.
C authentication.
D logging in.
Answer: C
26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer’s:
A CPU.
B platform.
C BIOS.
D CMOS.
Answer: B
27. The following message generally means:
A a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
B the CD drive is not functioning.
C the BIOS is corrupted.
D there is a problem loading a device.
Answer: A
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process?
A Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
B Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
C Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
D Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
Answer: B
29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
A load the operating system into RAM.
B the power-on self-test.
C activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
D load application programs.
Answer: D
30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
A BIOS
B API
C device driver
D supervisor program
Answer: A
31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
A RAM.
B ROM.
C the CPU.
D the hard drive.
Answer: B
32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________ process.
A configuration
B CMOS
C POST
D ROM
Answer: C
33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the:
A registry.
B API.
C CMOS.
D kernel.
Answer: D
34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
A The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
B The video card and video memory are tested.
C The BIOS identification process occurs.
D Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Answer: A
35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT:
A any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
B the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed.
C this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
D virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Answer: A
36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
A files.
B folders.
D drives.
D systems.
Answer: D
37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT:
A windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
B windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
C more than one window can be open at a time.
D toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Answer: A
38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT:
A A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
B Files can be generated from an application.
C Files are stored in RAM.
D Files should be organized in folders.
Answer: C
39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates:
A an open folder.
B the folder contains subfolders.
C a text file.
D a graphics file.
Answer: B
40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.
A List
B Thumbnails
C Details
D Icon
Answer: C

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GENERAL KNOWLEDGE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. Mettur dam is situated on the river
A. Cauvery
B. Narmada
C. Krishna
D. Mahanadi
Ans. (A)

2. Tirupati temple is located in—
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Ans. (b)

3. Which Pakistani scientist is suspected to be involved in giving nuclear know how to other countries?
A. Shahariyar Khan
B. Imaran Khán
C. Javed Kazi
D. Abdul Qadir Khan
Ans. (D)

4. Who is the chief minister of Asom?
A. Tarun Gagoi
B. Hiteshwar Saikia
C. Prafful Kumar Mohanta
D. None of these
Ans. (A)

5. ‘Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan’ slogan was given by
A. Indira Gandhi
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans. (B)

6. The people of Indus Valley Civilization worshipped
(a) Brahma
(b) Vishnu
(c) Pashupati
(d) Indra and Varun
Ans. (c)

7. Ashoka was related to:
(a) Haryak dynasty
(b) Mauryan dynasty
(c) Gupta dynasty
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

8. The Rajasthan canal takes water from the river
A. Ravi
B. Ghaghara
C. Yamuna
D. Sutlej
Ans. (D)

9. International Women’s Day is celebrated on
A. May 27
B. January 9
C. April 7
D. March 8
Ans. (D)

10. Amnesty International is—
(a) a human rights group
(b) a refugee camp in Somalia
(c) a wing of World Bank
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)

11. Insulin controls the metabolism of—
(a) sugars
(b) fats
(c) proteins
(d) salts
Ans. (a)

12. Sariska bird sanctuary is situated in
A. Haryana
B. Gujarat
C. Rajasthan
D. Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (C)

13. If it is 4p.m. on Monday at l50° W longitude, what is the time at 150 ° E longitude?
A. Sunday, 8 p.m.
B. Tuesday, 4a.m.
C. Tuesday, 4p.m.
D. Tuesday, 12 noon
Ans. (D)

14. The mixed economy means
A. Equal importance for agriculture and heavy industries
B. Co-existence of small scale and large scale industries
C. Co-existence of the poor and the rich
D. Co-existence of private and public sectors
Ans. (D)

15. Loktak lake is situated in which state?
A. Manipur
B. Sikkim
C. Tripura
D. Mizoram
Ans. (A)

16. Which of the following diseases cannot be prevented by vaccination?
A. Whooping cough
B. Smallpox
C. Polio
D. Diabetes
Ans. (C)

17. Spondylitis affects which organ of the body?
A. Lungs
B. Kidney
C. Spinal cord
D: Brain
Ans. (C)

18. Who composed Ain-e-Akbari?
A. Farista
B. Ibn Batuta
C. Abul Fazal
D. Birbal
Ans. (C)

19. Who introduced the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’?
A. Dalhousie
B. Canning
C. Rippon
D. Lytton
Ans. (A)

20. Who permitted the English to establish first factory in India?
A. Akbar
B. Jehangir
C. Shahjahan
D. Aurangzeb
Ans. (B)

21. The word Buddha means
A. A winner
B. A preacher
C. An Enlightened
D. A traveler
Ans. (C)

22. Who determined the boundary between India and Pakistan?
A. Lord Mountbatten
B. Sir Radcliff
C. Sir Cripps
D. Laurence
Ans. (B)

23. When did the British Government annul the partition of Bengal?
A. 1919
B. 1917
C.1914
D. 1911
Ans. (D)

24. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the framers of the Indian constitution?
A. L. B. Kriplani
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. J. L. Nehru
D. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Ans. (D)

25. Who gave the most effective slogan “Do or Die” during Quit India Movement?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. J. L Nehru
C. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D. Subhash Chandra Bose
Ans. (A)

26. Where were the Olympics 2008 held?
A. China
B. Greece
C. Italy
D. France
Ans. (A)

27. Which vitamin is provided by sunlight to body?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans. (d)

28. The longest river of Karnataka is
A. Krishna
B. Cauvery
C. Tungbhadra
D. Godavari
Ans. (A)

29. Which city of Karnataka is growing fast in the field of information technology and software?
A. Bhadravati
B. Mysore
C. Hassan
D. Bengluru
Ans. (D)

30. Which of the following is not a tax of the Central Government?
A. Income tax
B. Excise duty
C. Land revenue
D. Corporate tax
Ans. (C)

31. Which countries are related to Palk strait?
A. India and Sri Lanka
B. North Korea and South Korea
C. China and Pakistan
D. Britain and France
Ans. (A)

32. Which of the following states is the largest in area?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Rajasthan
D. Mahrashtra
Ans. (C)

33. Which of the following rivers flows to the west?
A. Godavari
B. Cauvery
C. Narmada
D. Krishna
Ans. (C)

34. Who was elected the permanent chairman of the Constituent Assembly on December 11, 1946?
A. J. L. Nehru
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D. K.M. Munsi
Ans. (B)

35. First general elections were held in India during
A. 1949 — 50
B. 1950 — 51
C. 1951 — 52
D. 1956 — 7
Ans. (C)

36. The longest dam in India is
A. Bhakra Nangal dam
B. Nagarjun Sagar dam
C. Hirakud dam
D. Kosi dam
Ans. (C)

37. The jog water fall is situated in
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. West Bengal
C. Karnataka
D. Mahrashtra
Ans. (C)

38. The brightest planet is
A. Jupiter
B. Mars
C. Venus
D. Mercury
Ans. (C)

39. The currency of Italy is
A. Dollar
B. Waht
C. Pound
D. Lira
Ans. (D)

40. The rings are found around
A. Uranus
B. Jupiter
C. Mars
D. Saturn
Ans. (D)

41. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
A. copper
B. Iron
C. Aluminum
D. Tungsten
Ans. (D)

42. ‘Clove’ is obtained from
A. Root
B. Stem
C. Bud
D. Fruit
Ans. (C)

43. A mega city has a minimum population of:
(a) 10 lakhs
(b) 20 lakhs
(c) 50 lakhs
(d) 1 crore
Ans. (d)

44 The language of Chola rulers was:
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Kannada
(c) Tamil
(d) Telugu
Ans. (c)

45. Gandhiji started march to Dandi from:
(a) Dandi
(b) Sabarmati Ashram
(c) Gujarat
(c Champaran
Ans. (b)

46. Which the following rivers pass through valley?
(a) Godavari
(b) Narmada
(c) Krishna
(d) Mahanadi
Ans. (b)

47. The sex ratio is the highest in
(a) Kerala
(b) West Bengal
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d7. Mizoram
Ans. (a)

48. The post of collector in India was created in the
(a) 1772
(b) 1779
(c) 1792
(d) 1882
Ans. (a)

49. Who defeated the Marathas in
the third battle of Panipat?
(a) Afghans
(b) Mughals
(c) English
(d) French
Ans. (a)

50. The number of Puranas is:
(a) 18
(b) 21
(c) 23
(d) 16
Ans. (a)

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. Who was the first lady Prime Minister of the World?
A. Sirimavo Bhandranaike
B. Margaret Thatcher
C. Indira Gandhi
D. Golda Meir
Ans. (A)

2. Where is Central Potato Research Institute?
A. Shimla
B. Lucknow
C. Kanpur
D. Bhopal
Ans. (A)

3. With which field is ‘Vikram Seth’ associated?
A. Space Research
B. Literature
C. Journalism
D. Music
Ans. (B)

4. Who is known as the ‘Iron Man of India’?
A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. Subhash Chandra Bose
Ans. (C)

5. In which of the following fields did Tenzing Norgay distinguish himself?
A. Boxing
B. Mountaineering
C. Archery
D. Hockey
Ans. (B)

6. India’s anti-tank missile is:
A. Akash
B. Agni
C. Prithvi
D. Nag
Ans. (D)

7. The major difference between the Moderates and the Extremists in the Congress Session of 1907 was regarding —
(a) Education
(b) Boycott
(c) Satyagraha
(d) Swaraj
Ans. (b)

8. Devaluation of currency helps in promoting—
(a) imports
(b) exports
(c) tourism
(d) national income
Ans. (b)

9. Which Indian State is the largest producer of cashew nuts?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Assam
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (b)

10. 1930 is associated with—
(a) Presentation of Nehru Report
(b) Dandi March
(c) Second Round Table Conference
(d) Lahore Congress
Ans. (b)

11. Indian Railways has recently decided to set up a new Wheel & Axle factory at:
A. Chhapra
B. Harnaut
C. Jamalpur
D. Darbhanga
Ans. (A)

12. Match the following cities of South India with their States:
(a) Coimbatore 1. Kerala
(b) Cochin (Kochi) 2. Karnataka
(c) Mangalore 3. Tamil Nadu
(d) Vijayanagar 4. Andhra Pradesh
A. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
B. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
C. a-1, b3, c-2, d-4
D. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
Ans. (B)

13. With which of the following gland/organ is ‘diabetes’ associated?
A. Thyroid
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Kidney
Ans. (C)

14. Cornea is a part of which of the following organs of human body?
A. Heart
C. Eye
B. Kidney
D. Ear
Ans. (C)

15. The blood cholesterol level in 100 ml of blood in a normal person varies between:
A. 250 to 350 mg
B. 150 to 250 mg
C. 100 to 150 mg
D. 50 to 100 mg
Ans. (C)

16. Choose the correct chronological order of dynasties:
A. Lodi, Slave, Tughlaq, Khilji
B. Slave, Tughlaq, Khilji, Lodi
C. Khilji, Lodi, Slave, Tughlaq
D. Slave, Khilji, Tughlaq, Lodi
Ans. (D)

17. Token currency was introduced in India for the first time by:
A. Firuz Shah Tughlaq
B. Muhammad bin Tughlaq
C. Alauddin Khilji
D. Qutubuddin Aibak
Ans. (B)

18. Which of the following pairs is incorrect?
A. Bairam Khan — Akbar
B. Jaswant Singh — Aurangzeb
C. Amir Khusrau — Jehangir
D. Ambar Malik — Humayun
Ans. (C)

19. Match the. following ancient books with their authors:
(a) Mahabharata 1. Kalidasa
(b) Kadambari 2. Panini
(c) Meghadoot 3. Banabhatta
(d) Asthadhyayi 4. Ved Vyas
A. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3,
B. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
C. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
D. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
Ans. (C)

20. Which of the following can be used for checking inflation temporari1y?
(a) Decrease in taxes
(b) Increase in wages
(c) Decrease in money supply
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

21. With which aspect of Commerce are ‘bull’ and ‘hear’ associated?
A. Banking
B. Foreign Trade
C. Stock Market
D. Internal Trade
Ans. (C)

22. The Tenth Five-Year Plan pertains to which period?
A. 2000-01 to 2004-05
B. 2001-02 to 2005-06
C. 2002-03 to 2006-07
D. 2003-04 to 2007-08
Ans. (C)

23. Debt service ratio implies ratio between:
A. export and total payout on debt
B. import and total debt
C. domestic saving and• import
D. domestic saving and total debt
Ans. (A)

24 Who said, where wealth accumulates, men decay”?
A. Abraham Lincoln
B. Mao-Tse-Thng
C. Karl Marx
D. Goldsmith
Ans. (D)

25. Gresham’s law in economic relates to:
A. distribution of goods and services
B. circulation of currency
C. supply and demand
D. consumption and supply
Ans. (B)

26. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly is true?
1. It is not based on Adult Franchise
2. It resulted from direct elections
3. it was a multiparty body
4. it worked through several committees
A. l and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (C)

27. Which of the following bills cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?
A. Money Bills
B. Bills pertaining, to the powers of the Supreme court of State Judiciary
C. Bills proclaiming the state of emergency arising out of war or external aggression
D. Bills bringing a State under emergency rules
Ans. (A)

28. How long can a person continue to be a Minister without being a member of either Houses of the Parliament?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. l year
D. No time limit
Ans. (B)

29. Centigrade and Fahrenheit scales give the same reading at:
A. —273°
B. —40°
C. —32°
D. 100°
Ans. (B)

30. Match the scientists with their inventions:
(a) C. Marconi 1. Gramophone
(b) J.L. Baird 2. Radio
(c) Alexander Graham Bell 3. Television
(d) Thomas Alva Edison 4. Telephone
A. a-l, b-2, c-3, d-4
B. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
C. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
B. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-l
Ans. (D)

31. In the process of galvanization, an iron sheet is coated with:
A. aluminum
B. zinc
C. tin
D. chromium
Ans. (B)

32. Rate of evaporation does not depend upon:
A. temperature of the liquid
B. surface area of the liquid
C. mass of the liquid
D. air pressure
Ans. (C)

33. Which of the following process produce Hydrogen gas?
A. Electrolysis of water
B. Passing of steam over red hot iron
C. Reaction of zinc with hydrochloric acid
D. All of these
Ans. (A)

34. Match the following with their chemical formulae
(a) Common Salt 1. Na2 SiO3
(b) Alum 2. NaCl
(c) Gypsum 3. K2SO4. Al2 (SO4)3 24H2O
(d) Quartz 4. CaSO4. 2H2O
A. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-l
B. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
C. a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
D. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
Ans. (A)

35. Which of the following is an element?
A. Ruby
B. Sapphire
C. Emerald
D. Diamond
Ans. (D)

36. Which of the following is true regarding a catalyst?
1. It increases the rate of reaction
2. It increases the activation energy
3. It reduces the activation energy
4. It is consumed in the reaction
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 5
Ans. (B)

37. The hydraulic automobiles application of:
A. Archimedes’ Principle
B. Pascal’s law
C. Bernoulli’s theorem
D. Faraday’s law
Ans. (B)

38. Match the following countries with their capitals:
(a) Nigeria 1. Luanda
(b) Qatar 2. Abuja
(c) Zambia 3. Lusaka
(d) Angola 4. Doha
A. a-2, b-4, c-3, d-l
B. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-l
C. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
D. a-4, b-2, c-3, d-l
Ans. (A)

39. Which of the following planets orbits around the sun in backward direction from east to west?
A. Earth
C. Venus
B. Mercury
D. Jupiter
Ans. (C)

40. More than two third of world’s tin comes from which country?
A. China
B. Malaysia
C. Nigeria
D. Brazil
Ans. (A)

41. The largest temple in the world
A. Meenakshi Temple
B. Angkor Vat
C. Pashupati Nath Temple of Nepal
D. Kashi Vishwanath Temple
Ans. (B)

42. Aryabhatta was India’s renowned:
A. Poet
B. Physicist
C. Mathematician
D. Physician
Ans. (C)

43. Which of the following pair does not match?
A. Sariska Sanctuary – Rajasthan
B. Kaziranga National Park – Assam (Asom)
C. Ghana Bird Sanctuary – Meghalaya
D. Shivpuri National Park – Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (C)

44. Match the following hill stations of India with their states:
(a) Gulmarg 1. Rajasthan
(b) Dalhousie 2. Madhya Pradesh
(c) Mt. Abu 3. Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Panchmarhi 4. Himachal Pradesh
5. Uttaranchal
A. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
B. á-5, b-3, c-i, d-2
C. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-5
D. a-5, b-4, c-2, d-1
Ans. (A)

45. On which river the Pong Dam has been constructed?
A. Ganga
B. Tapti
C. Yamuna
D. Beas
Ans. (D)

46. Which country is the world’s largest supplier of silk?
A.. USA
B. Japan
C. China
D. India
Ans. (C)

47. Which one of the following does not contribute to development in India?
A. Technological research
B. Population growth
C. Diversification of industry
D. Increased saving
Ans. (B)

48. ‘Jog’ the highest water fall in India is located in the state of
A. Uttaranchal.
B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Karnataka
Ans. (D)

49. The President can proclaim emergency on the written advice of the:
A. Chief Justice
B. Vice-President
C. Prime Minister
D. Union Cabinet
Ans. (C)

50. The first state in India carved out on a linguistic basis was:
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Orissa
C. Manipur
D. Kerala
Ans. (A)

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. The function of hemoglobin in body is—
(a) Transport of oxygen.
(b) Destruction of bacteria
(c) Prevention of anaemia
(d) Utilization of iron
Ans. (a)

2. Which disease is more common among agricultural workers as compared to urban population?
(a) Lung’s disease
(b) Cirrhosis of liver
(c) Hookworm infection
(d) Cancer
Ans. (c)

3. Biological fixation of nitrogen occurs most commonly in which of the following crops?
(a) Pulses
(b) Rice
(c) Wheat
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

4. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(a) Encephalitis — Brain
(b) Colitis — Colon
(c) Hepatitis — Liver
(d) Jaundice — Throat
Ans. (a)

5. Which of the following, types of clothes is manufactured by using petroleum product?
(a) Rayon silk
(b) Terylene
(c) Silk
(d) Cotton
Ans. (b)

6. Which one of the following grows under the tree?
(a) Cabbage
(b) Bengal gram
(c) Peanuts
(d) Castor
Ans. (c)

7. Which of the following is an example of a plant which bears seeds but no fruits?
(a) Cotton plant
(b) Peepal plant
(c) Eucalyptus tree
(d) Pine tree
Ans. (a)

8. Radioactive element which has been found to have large reserves in India is—
(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Radium
(d) Plutonium
Ans. (a)

9. The image formed on the retina of a human eye is—
(a) Real and upright
(b) Real and inverted
(c) Imaginary and upright
(d) Imaginary and inverted
Ans. (b)

10. In increasing sequence, the major elements, present in the human body are—
(a) Calcium, iron, sodium, phosphorus
(b) Calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sulphur
(c) Calcium, iron, sodium, sulphur
(d) Calcium, potassium, phosphorus, iron
Ans. (c)

11. A light sensitive compound used in photography is—
(a) Silver chloride
(b) Silver sulphide
(c) Silver bromide
(d) Silver oxide
Ans. (c)

12. Protective foods in our diet are?
(a) fats and vitamins
(b carbohydrates and minerals
(c) vitamins .and minerals
(d) proteins and carbohydrates
Ans. (c)

13. The ancient name of Bengal was—
(a) Kamrupa
(b) Vasta
(ç) Gauda
(d) Vallabhi
Ans. (c)

14. Ahilyabai was the queen of?
(a) Gwalior
(b) Malwa
(c) Jaipur
(d) Bijapur
Ans. (a)

15. Moorish traveller, Ibn Batutah, came to India during the time of -
(a) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(c) Balban,
(d) Muhammed Bin Tughlaq
Ans. (d)

16. The main occupation of Harappan civilization was—
(a) agriculture
(b) cattle rearing
(c) commerce
(d) hunting
Ans. (c)

17. The Mahabalipuram temples were built by the King of dynasty?
(a) Gupta
(b) Chola
(c) Pallavas
(d) Kushans
Ans. (c)

18. The first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra was opened in—
(a) 1852
(b) 1853
(c) 1854
(d 1855
Ans. (b)

19. The first discourse of Buddha in Sarnath is called—
(a) Mahabhiniskranan
(b) Mahaparinirvana
(c) Mabamastakabhishekha
(d) Dharmachakrapravartan
Ans. (d)

20. The political and cultural centre of the Pandyas was—
(a) Vengi
(b) Madurai
(c) Kanchipuram
(d) Mahabalipuram
Ans. (b)

21. What is the correct chronological order in which the following invaded India?
(1) Huns
(2) Kushans
(3) Aryans
(4) Greeks
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans. (b)

22. Who wrote Mitakshara, a book on Hindu law?
(a) Nayachandra
(b) Amoghavarsa
(c) Vijaneswara
(d) Kumban
Ans. (c)

23. Gupta empire declined in the fifth century A.D. as a consequence of—
(a) Chalukya raids
(b) Greek invasion
(c) Hun invasion
(d) Pallava raids
Ans. (c)

24. Who founded the Hindu Shah dynasty of Punjab?
(a) Vasumitra
(b) Kallar
(c) Jayapala
(d) Mahipala
Ans. (b)

25. The main external threat to the Sultanate of Delhi was posed by the—
(a) Mongols
(b) Afghans
(c) Iranians
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)

26. Who among the following was a Leading exponent of Gandhian thoughts?
(a) J. L. Nehru
(b) M.N. Roy
(c) Vinoba Bhave
(d) Jai Prakash Narayan.
Ans. (c)

27. Who were the immediate successors of the Imperial Mauryas in Maghádha?
(a) Kushans
(b) Pandyas
(c) Satvahanas
(d) Sungas
Ans. (d)

28. Both Mahavira and Buddha preached during the reign of—
(a) Ajatasatru
(b) Bimbisara
(c) Nandivardhan
(d) Uday
Ans. (b)

29. Jahangir Mahal is located in—
(a) Delhi
(b) Fatehpur Sikri
(c) Agra Fort
(d) Sikandara
Ans. (c)

30. The percentage of glucose present in normal urine is—
(a) 0.1%
(b) 2%
(c) 9.5%
(d) 0%
Ans. (d)

31. The magnetic effect of electric current was first observed by—
(a) Henry
(b) Oersted
(c) Faraday
(d) Volta
Ans. (c)

32. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately—
(a) 4.5%
(b) 2.7%
(c) 1.2%
(d) 5.8%
Ans. (b)

33. The black hole theory was discovered by—
(a) S. Chandrasekhar
(b) Har Govind Khurana
(c) C.V. Raman
(d) S. Ramanujam
Ans. (a)

34. The main contribution of Chola dynasty in the field of administration lies in—
(a) systematic provincial administration
(b) a well planned revenue system
(c) a well organized central government
(d) an organized local self government
Ans. (d)

35. Who founded the philosophy of Pustimarga?
(a) Chaitanya
(b) Nanak
(c) Surdas
(d) Ballabhacharya
Ans. (d)

36. Which of the following-battles changed the destiny of a Mughal ruler in India?—
(a) Haldighati
(b) Panipat II
(c) Khanua
(d) Chausa
Ans. (d)

37. ‘The Vedas contain all they truth; was interpreted by—
(a) Swami Vivekananda
(b) Swami Dayananda
(c) Ram Mohan Rai
(d) S. Radhakrisnan
Ans. (b)

38. Match the columns—
Column I Column II
A. Second battle of Panipat 1. Decline of Vijaya Nagar
B. Second battle 2. British rule in India
C. Battle of Talikota 3. Turkish rule in India
D. Battle of Plassey 4. Mughal rule in India
5. Slave dynasty in India
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 5 3 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (d)

39. Babar entered India for the first time from the west through—
(a) Kashmir
(b) Sindh
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (c)

40. Which was first among the following?
(â) Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Subsidiary Alliance
(c) Permanent Settlement
(d) Double Government
Ans. (d)

41. The name of Lord ‘Cornwallis is associated with the—
(a) Dual government
(b) Maratha wars
(c) System of subsidiary alliances
(d) Permanent settlement
Ans. (d)

42. Sir Charles Wood’s Dispatch of 1854 dealt with—
(a) administrative reforms
(b) social reforms
(c) economic reforms
(d) educational reforms
Ans. (d)

43. The sea route to India was discovered by the—
(a) Dutch
(b) English
(c) Portuguese
(d) French
Ans. (c)

44. Which of the following pairs is correct?
(a) Ashvaghosa — Vikramaditya
(b) Banabhatta — Harshavardhana
(c) Harisena — Kanishka
(d) Kalidasa — Samudragupta
Ans. (b)

45. 4th July, 1776 is important in world history because of—
(a) Battle of Plassey
(b) Sea route to India was discovered
(c) English King Charles II was executed
(d) American Congress adopted the Declaration of Independence
Ans. (d)

46. Rowlatt Act was passed in the year—
(a) 1917
(b) 1919
(c) 1921
(d) 1932
Ans. (b)

47. Communal electorate in India was introduced through which of the following acts?
(a) 1909
(b) 1919
(c) 1921
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

48. Abhinav Bharat was organized by—
(a) Bhai Parmanand
(b) Khudiram Bose
(c) Vir Savarkar
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

49. On 22nd December which of the following places has the largest day and shortest night?
(a) Melbourne
(b) Moscow
(c) Madrid
(d) Madras
Ans. (a)

50. High pressure subtropical calm belts known as ‘Horse Latitudes’ lie between—
(a) 0° and 15°
(b) 20° and 25°
(c) 30° and 35°
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. Match List I with List II
List I List II
A. Rowlett Act 1. Indian magistrate can also give the decision on subject
of British matter
B. Mountford Improvement 2. Gave the power thinking on political affairs without jury
C. Ilbert Bill 3. Clear division on Government work between centre and
state
D. Indian Council 4. Used the process of election, though in vague way.
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (a)

2. Which blood – group is the universal donor?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) O
(d) AB
Ans. (c)

3. Match the leaders in List I with the movements they led in List II.
List I List II
A. Tomma Dore 1. Savara Rebellion
B. Shambhunath Pal 2. Munda Revolt
C. Birsa Munda 3. Koya Rebellion
D. Radhakrishna Dandasena 4. Pabna Uprising
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (a)

4. Match List I with List II
List I List II
A. William Bentick 1. Establishment of Public work
B. Charles Metcalfe 2.Annexation of Sindh
C. Ellen borough 3. Abolition of Persian as Court Language
D. Dalhousie 4. Signing of the treaty with Ranjit Singh
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (c)

5. Match List I with List II
List I List II
A. S.C Bose 1. Chairman of Radical Congress
B. Jawaharlal Nehru 2. Lal Kurti Andolan
C. Abdul Gaffar Khan 3. Bardoli Andolan
D. Sardar Pte1 4. In Lahore Conference Congress proposed whole revolution
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (b)

6. London is situated on the banks of river
(a) Thames
(b) Tyne
(c) Avon
(d) Clyde
Ans. (a)

7. From the sun rays we get
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
Ans. (d)

8. Match List I with List II
List- I List- II
A. HaiderAli 1. Road and land development
B. Krishna Deva Rai 2. Construction of Mackbara and goal
C. Shershah Suri 3. Telugu Sahitya
D. Afghan and Turk 4. Arts of war
The correct answer code is
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (c)

9. Match List -I symptoms of founder with dynasty List- II
List -I List- II
A. Parts of big stone and minimum 1. Lodi dynasty
B. Pure Aperture 2. Slave dynasty
C. Half Gumbaj Mahadware 3. Mughal dynasty
D. Dohre Gumbaj 4. Tughlaq dynasty
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (d)

10. Match the Maratha Chiefs (List- I) with their respective seats of power (List- II)
List -I List- II
A. Peshwa 1. Gwalior
B. Gaekwad 2. Poona
C. Scindhia 3. Nagpur
D. Holker 4. Baroda
E. Bhons1e 5. Indore
The correct answer code is:
A B C D E
(a) 2 4 1 5 3
(b) 2 5 1 3 4
(c) 1 5 3 2. 4
(d) 5 2 1 3 4
Ans. (a)

11. Match important court poets / scholars. (List -I) with their patrons (List -II)
List- I List- II
A. Jaidev 1. Vikramaditya I
B. Bilhana 2. Lakshaman Sena
C. Amarsimha 3. Yashovarman of Kannauj
D. Vakpatiraja 4. Chandragupta 11
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (c)

12. Match List -I (Inventor) with List- II (Ways)
List- I List- II
A. Christopher Columbus 1.Near the travelling of southern parts of South Africa
B. Bartholomen Diaz 2. Travelling from Spain and crossing the Atlantic and
going through west region by seaway.
C. Magellan 3. Reaching the Malabar Soil after circulating the
southern parts of South Africa
D. Vasco-de- Gama 4. Travelling by sea-way of all countries.
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (b)

13. Which of the following songs was so melodious for Mahatma Gandhi, who wrote in this regard. ‘If I forget Bhagwatgita, this only song gives me strength and promotes……
(a) Jan Gan Man Adhinayak….
(b) Raghupati Raghav Raja Ram….
(c) Vaishnav Jan to Tene Kahie….
(d) Iswar Allah Tero Nam..,.
Ans. (b)

14. Match List -I with List -II
List -I List- II
A. Nagarjuna 1.Knowlèdge is the primary means of Salvation
B. Shankaryacharya 2. Woman Saint
C. Andal 3. Tried to assimilate Bhakti to the tradition of the Vedas
D. Ramanuja 4. Played an important role in the spread of Buddhism
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (d)

15. Match. List I with List II
List –I List -II
A. Kane cave temples 1. Mahayana
B. Khandagiri rock cut halls 2. Shaivite
C. Bagh caves 3. Hinayana
D. Badami cave temp1es 4. Jain
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (a)

16. ‘Milk’ is an example of:
(a) Collidal
(b) Gel
(c) Imulsion
(d) Foam
Ans. (a)

17. Which of the following trees gains the oil of Tarpin?
(a) Netum
(b) Mycuss
(c) Devdar
(d) Chir
Ans. (d)

18. Match List I with List II
List-I List-II

A. Carbohydrate 1. Pepsin
B. Enzyme 2. Starch
C. Hormone 3. Kerotin
D. Protein 4. Projestron
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 l 3 4
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (b)

19. Herbarium is
(a) collection of herb in a dry place
(b) one of the centers where different types of herbs are there
(c) a centre where the medical herbs are kept
(d) a centre where the dry botanical elements are conserved
Ans. (a)

20. The widely used antibiotic, penicillin, is produced by
(a) an algae
(b) a bacterium
(c) a fungus
(d) chemical means
Ans. (b)

21. Lichen is considered to be a symbiotic association of two organisms. Which organisms are involved in it?
(a) Algae and bacteria
(b) Algae and fungi
(c) Algae and bryophytes
(d) Fungi and bryophytes
Ans. (a)

22. Which of the following is a microelement?
(a) Chlorine
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Oxygen
Ans. (b)

23. Match the Scientific Discoveries in List- I with the Scientists in List- II
List- I List-II
A. DNA structure 1. Jacob and Monod
B. ABO blood groups 2. Barbara McClintock
C. Jumping genes 3. Watson and Crick
D. Regulatory genes 4. Land Steiner
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (b)

24. Match List -I with List-II
List- I List -II
(Herb) (Resources)
A. Kunain 1. Leaves
B. Digitlis 2. Fruits
C. Roubolfia 3. Epidermis
D. Heroin 4. Root
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (a)

25. After few distance the television signal is not adopted by T.V. set because of-
(a) weak signal
(b) weak receiver antenna
(c) absorption of signal by air
(d) aperture of earth
Ans. (d)

26. In respect of D.C. A.C. is profitable
(a) In A.C. maximum of electric energy are present
(b) A.C. voltage is free from increase or decrease
(c) Cost of A.C. production is less
(d) A.C can send in maximum distance without less power consumption
Ans. (d)

27. Which of the planets have not any satellite, more around the planets?
(a) Venus and Mars
(b) Mercury and Venus
(c) Mars and Venus
(d Neptune and Pluto
Ans. (b)

28. In cold regions, where temperature may fall below 0°C, farmers fill their fields with water to protect their crops from damage because
(a) water is abundantly available in cold regions
(b) water has low specific heat capacity and volume of water increases when temperature falls below 4°C
(c) water has high specific heat capacity
(d) plenty of water is absorbed by soil in cold regions
Ans. (c)

29. A rocket and a jet engine differ because
A. their working principles are entirely different
B. a rocket uses only liquid fuels whereas a jet can use solid fuels as well
C. while a rocket carries its own oxygen supply, a jet draws its air out of the atmosphere
D. a rocket can propel vehicles into outer space whereas a jet cannot
The correct combination is:
(a) C, D
(c) A, B.
(b) B, C, D
(d) A, C, D
Ans. (d)

30. Name the Constitutional Amendment by which three new states Chattisgarh, Uttaranchal and Jharkhand have been created.
(a) 81st Constitutional Amendment, 1999
(b) 82nd Constitutional Amendment, 2000
(c) 83rd Constitutional Amendment, 2000
(d) 84th Constitutional Amendment, 2000
Ans. (b)

31. Who is the author of the book ‘My Girlhood: An Autobiography’?
(a) Arundhati Roy
(b) Taslima Nasreen
(b) Medha Patkar
(d) Sobha De
Ans. (b)

32. Liquefied Petroleum Gas consists of mainly
(a) Methane, Ethane, Hexane
(b) Ethane, Hexane, Butane
(c) Methane, Butane, Propane
(d) Methane, Butane, Hexane
Ans. (a)

33. After defeat of which Hindu emperor Vijayanagar Dynasty ended?
(a) Krishnadeva Rai
(b) Ram. Raja
(c) Harihar Rai
(d) Bukka Rai
Ans. (c)

34. Match List I with List II
List- I List- II
A. Hirakud barrage l. Vyas
B. Thin barrage 2. Chenab
C. Salal project 3. Ravi
D. Ponga barrage 4. Mahanadi
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (b)

35. In music seventh ‘Sa’, ‘Re’, ‘Ga’
(a) the frequency of pronunciation ‘Sa’ is less than the frequency of ‘Re’, ‘Ga’
(b) the frequency of pronunciation ‘Sa’ is greater than the frequency of ‘Re’, ‘Ga’
(c) frequencies re decreasing respectively
(d) frequencies are equal of all pronunciations
Ans. (d)

36. If two persons are talking in space of moon then-
(a) in respect to earth, the sound is listened by each other on moon after maximum time.
(b) the time taken in listening to the sound are equal at both places.
(c) sound cannot be heard on moon.
(d) sound of echo can be heard by each other again and again.
Ans. (a)

37. Though water is transparent to visible light yet it is not possible to see distant objects in the fog which consists of fine drops of water suspended in air.
The reason for this is that-
(a) fog affects our vision adversely.
(b) most of the light is scattered and hence this appears invisible.
(c) the light rays suffer total internal reflection and cannot reach directly the eyes of the observer.
(d) fine drops of water are opaque to visible light.
Ans. (d)

38. Producer gas is used as a fuel and also as a source of nitrogen.
The gas is obtained by
(a) spraying oil into hot retorts.
(b) passing a mixture of steam and air over incandescent coke
(c) passing air through a bed of incandescent coke.
(d) passing steam over incandescent coke
Ans. (b)

39. The earth moves round ‘the sun an elliptical path. The speed of the earth in its orbital path around the sun
(a) is uniform
(b) decreases when the distance between them increases
(c) increases when the distance between them decreases
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)

40. Zimbabwe was formerly known as —
(a) Rhodesia
(b) Mali
(c) Namibia
(d) Zanzibar
Ans. (a)

41. Which of the following pairs is correct?
(a) Bonn — Danube
(b) Baghdad — Tigris
(c) Rome — Seine
(d) Paris — Tiber
Ans. (b)

42. The canal joining Baltic Sea to North Sea is—
(a) Kiel Canal
(b) Suez Canal
(c Panama Canal
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

43. Which of the following rivers does not form any delta at its mouth?
(a) Cauvery
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Godavari
(d) Tapti
Ans. (d)

44. Srinagar is situated on the bank of river—
(a) Ravi
(b) Sutlej
(c) Jhelam
(d) Chenab
Ans. (c)

45. The Shompens are the tribal people of—
(a) Andaman
(b) Nicobar
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

46. Match the following—
Column I Column II
A. Manas 1. Hangul
B. Dachigam 2. Elephant
C. Mudumalai 3. Tiger
D. Kaziranga 3. Rhinoceros
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (b)

47. In India Plan holiday was after—
(a) China -India war of 1962
(b) Drought of 1966
(c) Pakistan War of 1971
(d) Pakistan War of 1965
Ans. (b)

48. Which of the following is not a ‘Free Trade Zone’?
(a) Kandla
(b) Mumbai
(c) Vishakhapatnam
(d) Trivandrum
Ans. (a)

49. ‘Butterfly’ word is related to—
(a) basketball
(b) snooker
(c) swimming
(d) boating
Ans. (c)

50. ‘Astigmatism’ is a disease of—
(a) ears
(b) eyes
(c) nose
(d) throat
Ans. (b)

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. The speed of sound wave is increased due to—
(a) Decrease in temperature

(b) Increase in temperature
(c) Increase then decrease in temperature
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

2. Railway earns mare in carrying—
(a) Passengers
(b) Goods
(c) Construction work
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

3. Which of the following generates highest income?
(a) Software
(b) NRI remittance
(c) RBI-interest rate
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

4. Which of the following statements is not correct about sound waves?
(a) It is a straight line
(b) It has energy
(c) It is in wave form
(d) Sound travels faster in vacuum than in air
Ans. (d)

5. The drop of water is spherical in shape due to—
(a) Surface tension
(b) Viscosity
(c) Gravitation
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

6. The Telugu-Ganga project is related to—
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (a)

7. The time required to reach the sunlight to the earth is—
(a) 6 minutes 40 seconds
(b) 8 minutes 20 seconds
(c) 7 minutes 20 seconds
(d) 9 minutes 10 seconds
Ans. (b)

8. The chlorine gas turns iodine—
(a) Blue
(b) Red
(c) Green
(d) Orange
Ans. (a)

9. The maximum intensity of earthquake on Richter Scale is
(a) l
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) l0
Ans. (d)

10. The non-metal which conducts both heat and electricity is—
(a) iodine
(b) chlorine
(c) phosphorus
(d) graphite
Ans. (d)

11. The cities Halebid and Belur were constructed by
(a) Cholas
(b) Hoyasalas
(c) Kakatiyas
(d) Pállavas
Ans. (b)

12. Covalent bond is formed by—
(a) sharing of electrons
(b) donation of electrons
(c) sharing of protons
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)

13. Carbon forms more compounds because—
(a) carbon is easily available
(b) valency of carbon is more
(c) of covalent bond and ionic bonds
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)

14. The language specially used for Database Management is—
(a) Visual-basic
(b) Standard Query Language
(c) Fortran
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

15. The principle of dynamo is—
(a) electromagnetic induction
(b) magnetic effect of current
(c) heating effect of current
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)

16. Mohr Scale is used to measure—
(a) hardness of minerals
(b) hardness of water
(c) viscosity of gases
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)

17. In ‘Skandpuran’ Garhwal is known by the name of—
(a) Kedarkhand
(b) Kurmachàl
(c) Jallandhar
(d) Gadhdesh
Ans. (a)

18. Who is the director of film 36 Chaurangi Lane’?
(a) Satyajeet Ray
(b) Shyam Benegal
(c) Prakash Jha
(d) Aparna Sen
Ans. (d)

19. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Tharu — Bihar
(b) Semang — Yeman
(c) Mesai — Mountain of East Africa
(d) Badu — Malaya
Ans. (a)

20. Author of ‘Post Office’ is—
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Mulkraj Anand
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Vishnu Sharma
Ans. (b)

21. Which of the following metals is the worst conductor of electricity?
(a) Aluminum
(b) Copper
(c) Iron
(d) Carbon
Ans. (d)

22. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Sale Tax — State Government
(b Income Tax — State Government
(c) Excise Duty — Central Government
(d) Chungi — Municipal Corporation
Ans. (b)

23. Finance Commission is formulated by—
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Ministry
(d) Planning Commission
Ans. (b)

24. Which of the following affects the Indian Administration?
(a) Unionism
(b) Parliamentary Democracy
(c) Planning
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)

25. World Health Day is celebrated on the date of—
(a) 7th April
(b) 15th March
(c) 9th April
(d) 10th April.
Ans. (a)

26. Which one of the following poets belongs to royal family?
(a) Kamban
(b) Bharati
(c) Ilangoadigal
(d) Chengundanar
Ans. (c)

27. Atomic Number is equal to the number of—
(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) neutron
(d) either electron or proton
Ans. (d)

28. Phosphorus can be preserved in -
(a) kerosene
(b) water
(c) petrol
(d) ether
Ans. (b)

29. Which of the following substances is obtained during the fractional distillation of petroleum at 260-350°C?
(a) Kerosene
(b) Petrol
(c) Naphtha
(d) Diesel
Ans. (d)

30. Which of the following does not contain chlorophyll?
(a) Fern
(b) Mosses
(c) Fungi
(d) Algae
Ans. (c)

31. Major difference between animal and plant cells is—
(a) cell membrane
(b) chloroplast
(c) nucleus
(d) cell wall
Ans. (d)

32 Fall of Bastille is related to
(a) Hundred Year War
(b) Napoleon War
(c) French Revolution
(d) England War
Ans. (c)

33. Rockfort passes between—
(a) Chennai and Trichinopoly
(b) Madurai and Tirunelveli
(c) Chennai and Bangalore
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

34. CERCL is located in—
(a) Chennai
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Bangalore
(d) Karaikudi
Ans. (d)

35. Birth place of Bharathiyar is—
(a) Ettayapuram
(b) Thiruchengode
(c) Madurai
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

36. Shiva Temple in Tanjore was built by—
(a) Pallava
(b) Chola
(c) Chalukyas
(d) Rashtrakuta
Ans. (b)

37. Numismatics is related to the study of—
(a) coins
(b) inscriptions
(c) epigraph
(d) sherds
Ans. (a)

38. Tamil version of Ramayana was written by—
(a) Kamban
(b) Valmiki
(c) Thiruvalluvar
(d) Ilango
Ans. (a)

39. Kautilya’s Arthashastra deals with—
(a) economy and politics
(b) inter-State relations
(c) ethics
(d) statecraft
Ans. (a)

40. Sarnath was an important place in the life of the Buddha where he—
(a) was born.
(b) gave his first sermon
(c) attained enlightenment
(d) died
Ans. (b)

41. Who was the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(b) Ba1 Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Swami Vivekanand
(d) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Ans. (a)

42. Mirage is based on the principle of—
(a) double refraction
(b) total reflection
(c) scattering
(d) refraction
Ans. (b)

43. Set Top Box is related to—
(a) CAP
(b) CAS
(c) Cable Networking
(d) Internet
Ans. (b)

44. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to Exploitation
(b) Equal Pay for Equal Work
(c) Right o Freedom
(d) Equality before Law
Ans. (b)

45. Chennai Head Post Office is the name of—
(a) St. George Fort
(b) Rippon Building.
(c) Kuralagam
(d) Rajaji Hall
Ans. (b)

46. What is the share of India in global trade?
(a) 1.7%
(b) 1.4%
(c) 0.8%
(d) 10%
Ans. (c)

47. Transformer is used to-
(a) convert AC into DC
(b) convert DC into AC
(c) step up or step down D.C.
(d) step up or step down A.C.
Ans. (d)

48. The function of hemoglobin is
(a) transport oxygen
(b) release oxygen
(c) transport CO2
(d) release CO2
Ans. (a)

49. Which words were added to the Preamble to the Constitution of India by 42nd Amendment?
(a) Democratic and Socialist
(b) Secular and Sovereign
(c) Socialist and Secular
(d Democratic and Republic
Ans. (c)

50. Forty-Fourth Amendment to the Constitution of India is related to—
(a) Fundamental Rights are superior to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
(b) Right to Property ceased to be a Fundamental Right.
(c) Directive Principles were made at par with the Fundamental Rights.
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)