Battle of Hydaspes 326 B.C.—Alexander the Great,
defeated Porus, the Paurava king. Impressed by the valour of Porus,
ultimately Alexander returned his kingdom to him.
Battle of Kalinga 261 B.C.—Ashoka defeated the king of Kalinga. Ashoka embraced Buddhism and preached it during the rest of his life after this war.
First Battle of Tarain or Thaneswar A.D. 1191 Prithvi Raj Chauhan defeated Mohammed Ghori. Second Battle of Tarain A.D. 1192—Mohammed Ghori defeated Prithvi Raj Chauhan. Ghori’s victory paved the way for the establishment of Muslim rule in India.
First Battle of Panipat 1526—Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodhi. This laid the foundation of the Mughal rule in India.
Battle of Khanwah 1527— Babar defeated Rana Sanga of Mewar. This battle resulted in the defeat of the powerful Rajput confederacy.
Second Battle of Panipat 1556—Bairam
Khan (Akbar’s General) defeated Hemu (the Hindu General and right-hand
man of Mohd. Adil Shah). It also ended the Afghan Rule and Mughal Rule
began instead.
Battle of Talikota 1564- 65—United
alliance between Bijapur, Bidar, Ahmednagar and Golkonda under Hussain
Nizam Shah defeated Ram Raja of Vijayanagar. It destroyed the Hindu
Kingdom of Vijayanagar.
Battle of Haldighati 1576—Akbar’s
forces headed by Raja Man Singh defeated Rana Pratap, the brave Rajput
king. Though defeated, Rana Pratap refused to accept Mughal authority
and carried on warfare till his death.
Battle of Plassey 1757—
The English under Lord Clive defeated Siraj-ud-Daulah.It brought Muslim
Rule in Bengal to an end and laid foundations of the British Rule in
India.
Battle of Wandiwash 1760—The English defeated the French. The battle sealed the fate of the French in India and paved the way for English rule in India.
Third Battle of Panipat 1761—Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated Marathas. It gave a terrible blow to the Maratha power. It made the field clear for the English.
Battle of Buxar 1764—
Fought in 1764 between the forces of the English and the combined
forces of Mir Qasim, Shuja-ud-Daulah (Nawab of Oudh) and the Mughal
Emperor Shah Alam. The English victory at Buxar finally riveted the
shackles of the Company’s rule upon Bengal.
First Mysore War (1767- 68)—In 1768, Haider Ali was defeated by the English relinquishing all his rights over Mysore in favour of the English.
Second Mysore War 1780— A
grand alliance between Haider Ali, the Nizam and the Marathas was
formed and Haider Ali. He defeated the English and took possession of
Arcot and became the undisputed master of the Carnatic.
Third Mysore War 1790- 92—Fought
between the English and Tipu Sultan. Tipu Sultan had to submit and was
compelled to sign the Treaty of Seringapattam stripped him of half his
territory.
Fourth Mysore War 1799— The British
forces under Arthur Wellesley defeated Tipu Sultan, which brought the
end of the Tipu Sultan. Maratha War 1803-05—It weakened the Maratha
power. The English annexed Tanjore, Surat and Carnatic.
Fourth Maratha War 1817- 18—The British forces defeated Marathas and this campaign finally extinguished the Maratha Empire.
Battle of Cheelianwala 1849—Forces of the East India Company under Lord Hugh Gough defeated the Sikhs under Sher Singh.
Burmese War 1885—As a result of this War, the whole of Burma was occupied by the English and made a part of India.
Afghan War III 1919—As a result of this War, Treaty of Rawalpindi was signed by which Afghanistan was recognised as an independent State.
lndo-Pak War 1965—This
was Pakistan’s second attack on India. While India had the upper hand,
the fighting was brought to a stop by a call for ceasefire issued by the
Security Council. Later on, Tashkent accord was signed between the two
nations. lndo-
Pak War Dec 1971— Pakistan
started the war attacking India on Dec 3. India defeated Pakistan on all
fronts. Pakistani occupation forces, numbering about one lakh, in East
Bengal (Bangladesh) surrendered. Bangladesh emerged as an independent
nation.
Thursday, June 21, 2012
Monday, June 18, 2012
Famous Cities and River Banks
City | Country | River |
Adelaide | Australia | Torrens |
Amsterdam | Netherlands | Amsel |
Alexandria | Egypt | Nile |
Ankara | Turkey | Kazil |
Allahabad | India | At the confluence of the Ganga and Yamuna |
Agra | India | Yamuna |
Ayodhya | India | Saryu |
Ahmedabad | India | Sabarmati |
Badrinath | India | Alaknanda |
Bareilly | India | Ram Ganga |
Bangkok | Thailand | Chao Praya |
Basra | Iraq | Euphrates and Tigris |
Baghdad | Iraq | Tigris |
Berlin | Germany | Spree |
Bonn | Germany | Rhine |
Budapest | Hungary | Daunbe |
Bristol | U. K. | Avon |
Buenos Aires | Argentina | Laplata |
Cuttack | India | Mahanadi |
Curnool | India | Tungabhadra |
Chittagong | Bangladesh | Majyani |
Canton | China | Si-Kiang |
Cairo | Egypt | Nile |
Chung King | China | Yang-tse-King |
Cologne | Germany | Rhine |
Delhi | India | Yamuna |
Dandzing | Germany | Vistula |
Dresden | Germany | Elve |
Dibrugarh | India | Brahmaputra |
Dublin | Ireland | Liffy |
Ferozpur | India | Satluj |
Guwahati | India | Brahmaputra |
Hardwar | India | Ganga |
Hyderabad | India | Musi |
Hamburg | Germany | Elve |
Jabalpur | India | Narmada |
Jamshedpur | India | Swarnarekha |
Jaunpur | India | Gomti |
Kabul | Afghanistan | Kabul |
Karachi | Pakistan | Indus |
Kanpur | India | Ganga |
Kota | India | Chambal |
Kolkata | India | Hooghly |
Khartoum | Sudan | Confluence of Blue and white Nile |
Lahore | Pakistan | Ravi |
Leningrad | Russia | Neva |
Lucknow | India | Gomti |
Lisbon | Portugal | Tagus |
Liverpool | England | Messey |
Ludhiana | India | Satluj |
London | England | Thames |
Mathura | India | Yamuna |
Moscow | Russia | Moskva |
Montreal | Canada | St. Lawrence |
Nanking | China | Yang-tse-Kiang |
New Orleans | U.S.A. | Mississippi |
Nasik | India | Godavari |
New York | U.S.A. | Hudson |
Ottawa | Canada | Ottawa |
Patna | India | Ganga |
Paris | France | Seine |
Philadelphia | U.S.A. | Delaware |
Perth | Australia | Swan |
Panjim | India | Mandavi |
Prague | Czech Republic | Vitava |
Quebec | Canada | St. Lawrence |
Rome | Italy | Tiber |
Rotterdam | The Netherlands | New Mass |
Stalingrad | Russia | Volga |
Shanghai | China | Yang-tse-Kiang |
Sidney | Australia | Darling |
Srinagar | India | Jhelum |
Surat | India | Tapti |
Sambalpur | India | Mahanadi |
Serirangapatam | India | Cauvery |
Saint Luis | U.S.A. | Mississippi |
Tiruchurapalli | India | Cauvery |
Tokyo | Japan | Arakava |
Ujjain | India | Kshipra |
Vijayvada | India | Krishna |
Varanasi | India | Ganga |
Vienna | Australia | Danube |
Warsaw | Poland | Vistula |
Washington D.C. | U.S.A. | Potomac |
Yangoon | Myanmar | Irrawaddy |
Saturday, June 16, 2012
GENERAL AWARENESS MCQs
1. Kabir Puraskar is awarded for:
a) Hindi literature b) Promotion of Communal harmony
c) For contribution in culture development d) None of the above
2. India’s first food bank has been established at:
a) Mumbai b) Chennai
c) New Delhi d) Kolkata
3. Which among these islands in a bone of contention between U.K. & Argentina?
a) Spratly Island b) Shetland Island
c) Falkland Island d) Turks & Caicos Island
4. In which State the newly inaugurated Dhamra Port is situated?
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Maharashtra
c) Orissa d) Goa
5.
Kerala has the highest sex ratio according to the latest figures
released by Census for 2001-2011. What is the sex ratio for that State?
a) 1099 b) 1091
c) 1084 d) None of the above
6.
Which of the following countries has recently donated 1 million US
dollars for construction of a library in Nalanda International
University (NIU) to highlight the art and architecture? The fund will
help in strengthening the relations between the two countries.
a) Thailand b) South Korea
c) Japan d) China
7.
The U.S. has launched “Climate and clean Air condition”- a global
initiative to combat climate change. Which of the following is the only
Asian country to be part of this initiative?
a) India b) Myanmar
c) Bangladesh d) Philippines
8. Which of the following countries has started imposing 'fat tax'?
a) Netherland b) Sweden
c) Serbia d) Denmark
9.
Recently the Union Cabinet of India has approved the reconstruction and
repair of houses for the rehabilitation of Internally Displaced Persons
in which country?
a) Myanmar b) Bangladesh
c) Afghanistan d) Sri Lanka
10. Name the new President of France:
a) Lucas Papademos b) Nicolas Sarkozy
c) George Kirtos d) François Hollande
11. Which of the following Gulf country has granted Voting rights to woman recently?
(a) Bahrain (b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Yemen (d) Qatar
12. Recently Amazon has launched its new wet browser for its new kindle Tablet. The same of the browser is–
(a) SILK (b) SWIFT
(c) CORONA (d) QUICK
13. The Tagore University for the Liberal Arts, is the first institution to be established under the Human Resource Development Ministry as a University for Innovation Programme. The said university will be set up at–
(a) Kolkata (b) Pune
(c) Bangalore (d) Guwahati
14. Who among the following has been awarded with International Jurists Award-2012 for the support to the development of the legal fraternity in the world?
(a) Mulayam Singh Yadav (b) Ram Jethamalani
12. Recently Amazon has launched its new wet browser for its new kindle Tablet. The same of the browser is–
(a) SILK (b) SWIFT
(c) CORONA (d) QUICK
13. The Tagore University for the Liberal Arts, is the first institution to be established under the Human Resource Development Ministry as a University for Innovation Programme. The said university will be set up at–
(a) Kolkata (b) Pune
(c) Bangalore (d) Guwahati
14. Who among the following has been awarded with International Jurists Award-2012 for the support to the development of the legal fraternity in the world?
(a) Mulayam Singh Yadav (b) Ram Jethamalani
(c) G.E Vahanvati (d) Sharad Yadav
15. There is an ongoing judicial inquiry into the culture, practices and ethics of the British press following the News International phone hacking scandal. Who among the following is head of the judicial panel?
15. There is an ongoing judicial inquiry into the culture, practices and ethics of the British press following the News International phone hacking scandal. Who among the following is head of the judicial panel?
(a) Brian Henry Leveson (b) Duncan Larcombe
(c) Sir David Bell (d) Shami Chakrabarti
16.
Which of the Pacific islands moved from east to west of the
international date line on December 29, thereby skipping December 30, in
order to align their time zone better with their main trading partner?
a) Samoa & Tokelau b) Samoa & Kiribati
c) Kiribati & Comoros d) Comoros & Tuvalu
17. The Boko Haram, islamist militant group is engaged in conflict with the government of which of the following countries?
a) South Sudan b) Ethiopia
c) Nigeria d) Sierra Leon
18. Which of the following is the longest train service in India?
a) Himsagar Express b) Vivek Express
c) Dibrugarh-Chennai Express d) Trivandrum Rajdhani
19.
Russia has set up world's first international atomic fuel bank as part
of a global effort to curb the spread of nuclear arms to nations like
North Korea and Iran. It has been established at:
a) Moscow b) Angarsk
c) Omsk d) Irkutsk
20. "The Emperor of All Maladies: A Biography of cancer", won Pulitzer Prize for general non-fiction. The author of the book is-
a) Paul Theroux b) Siddhartha Mukherjee
c) Zareer Masani d) Arvinda Adiga
21. NTR National Literary Award 2012 has been won by:
a) S. L Bhyrappa b) K Sachidanandan
c) Ashokamitran d) A Soma Sundaram
22. Andhra Pradesh has set up its first Biosphere Reserve recently. What is the name of that?
a) Simlipal b) Seshachalam
c) Kasu Brahmananda Reddy d) Mahavir Harina Vanasthali
23. What is LAHAT?
a) Unmanned Aerial Vehicle b) Surface to surface missile
c) Torpedo d) Anti Tank Guided missile
24. 38th G-8 Summit held at:
a) Camp David, Maryland b) Chicago
c) L'Aquila,Abruzzo d) Huntsville, Ontario
25. Which one of the following is not the latest district set up in Uttar Pradesh?
a) Prabuddhanagar b) Panchsheel Nagar
c) Bhimnagar d) Sant Ravidas Nagar
a) S. L Bhyrappa b) K Sachidanandan
c) Ashokamitran d) A Soma Sundaram
22. Andhra Pradesh has set up its first Biosphere Reserve recently. What is the name of that?
a) Simlipal b) Seshachalam
c) Kasu Brahmananda Reddy d) Mahavir Harina Vanasthali
23. What is LAHAT?
a) Unmanned Aerial Vehicle b) Surface to surface missile
c) Torpedo d) Anti Tank Guided missile
24. 38th G-8 Summit held at:
a) Camp David, Maryland b) Chicago
c) L'Aquila,Abruzzo d) Huntsville, Ontario
25. Which one of the following is not the latest district set up in Uttar Pradesh?
a) Prabuddhanagar b) Panchsheel Nagar
c) Bhimnagar d) Sant Ravidas Nagar
Friday, June 8, 2012
The top 10 causes of death
Low-income countries | Deaths in millions | % of deaths |
Lower respiratory infections | 1.05 | 11.3% |
Diarrhoeal diseases | 0.76 | 8.2% |
HIV/AIDS | 0.72 | 7.8% |
Ischaemic heart disease | 0.57 | 6.1% |
Malaria | 0.48 | 5.2% |
Stroke and other cerebrovascular disease | 0.45 | 4.9% |
Tuberculosis | 0.40 | 4.3% |
Prematurity and low birth weight | 0.30 | 3.2% |
Birth asphyxia and birth trauma | 0.27 | 2.9% |
Neonatal infections | 0.24 | 2.6% |
Middle-income countries | Deaths in millions | % of deaths |
Ischaemic heart disease | 5.27 | 13.7% |
Stroke and other cerebrovascular disease | 4.91 | 12.8% |
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease | 2.79 | 7.2% |
Lower respiratory infections | 2.07 | 5.4% |
Diarrhoeal diseases | 1.68 | 4.4% |
HIV/AIDS | 1.03 | 2.7% |
Road traffic accidents | 0.94 | 2.4% |
Tuberculosis | 0.93 | 2.4% |
Diabetes mellitus | 0.87 | 2.3% |
Hypertensive heart disease | 0.83 | 2.2% |
High-income countries | Deaths in millions | % of deaths |
Ischaemic heart disease | 1.42 | 15.6% |
Stroke and other cerebrovascular disease | 0.79 | 8.7% |
Trachea, bronchus, lung cancers | 0.54 | 5.9% |
Alzheimer and other dementias | 0.37 | 4.1% |
Lower respiratory infections | 0.35 | 3.8% |
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease | 0.32 | 3.5% |
Colon and rectum cancers | 0.30 | 3.3% |
Diabetes mellitus | 0.24 | 2.6% |
Hypertensive heart disease | 0.21 | 2.3% |
Breast cancer | 0.17 | 1.9% |
World | Deaths in millions | % of deaths |
Ischaemic heart disease | 7.25 | 12.8% |
Stroke and other cerebrovascular disease | 6.15 | 10.8% |
Lower respiratory infections | 3.46 | 6.1% |
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease | 3.28 | 5.8% |
Diarrhoeal diseases | 2.46 | 4.3% |
HIV/AIDS | 1.78 | 3.1% |
Trachea, bronchus, lung cancers | 1.39 | 2.4% |
Tuberculosis | 1.34 | 2.4% |
Diabetes mellitus | 1.26 | 2.2% |
Road traffic accidents | 1.21 | 2.1% |
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Match the locations of ports labelled as A, B, C and D in the
given map with the names of those ports and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the name of the ports:
Name of Ports:
1. Kakinada
2. Karwar
3. Mangalore
4; Tuticorin
5. Veraval
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 2 3 5
(2) 5 2 4 1
(3) 1 3 4 2
(4) 5 3 2 1
Ans. (2)
2. Match List-I (Distinguished Ladies) with List-II (Position/Area of Work) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Distinguished Ladies) (Position/Area of Work)
A. Aruna Roy 1. Chairperson, Central Social Welfare Board
B. Poornima Advani 2. Chairperson, National Dairy Development Board
C. Amrita Patel 3. Community Development
D. Mridula Sinha 4. Chairperson, National Commission for Women
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 4 2 1
(2) 2 1 3 4
(3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 2 4 3 1
Ans. (1)
3. The given map refers to the kingdom of:
(1) Akbar at the time of capture of Khandesh in 1601
(2) Akbar at the time of his death in 1605
(3) Aurangzeb at the time of capture of Hyderabad
(4) Aurangzeb at the time of his death In 1707
Ans. (1)
4. Match List-I (Vitamins) with List-II (Disease caused by their Deficiency) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the List:
List-I (Vitamins) List-II (Diseases their Deficiency)
A. Vitamin A 1. Night blindness
B. Vitamin B1 2. Scurvy
C. Vitamin C 3. Beriberi
D. Vitamin D 4. Rickets
Code:
A B C D
(1) 2 3 1 4
(2) 1 4 2 3
(3) 2 4 1 3
(4) 1 3 2 4
Ans. (4)
5. Reserve Bank of India is a:
(1) Commercial Bank
(2) Central Bank
(3) Co-operative Bank
(4) Lead Bank
Ans. (2)
6. Ozone layer in the upper atmosphere blocks —
(1) heat rays from the Sun
(2) ultraviolet rays from the Sun
(3) cosmic rays from the space
(4) infrared rays from the Sun
Ans. (2)
7. Paraffin is a by-product of:
(1) petroleum refining
(2) processing of agricultural wastes
(3) cottage industry involving bee-keeping.
(4) leather Industry
Ans. (1)
8. Select the correct sequence in the decreasing order of carbon content:
(1) Pig iron—Cast iron—Mild steel
(2) Mild steel—Pit iron—Cast
(3) Pig iron—Mild steel—Cast iron
(4) Mild steel—Cast iron—Pig iron
Ans. (1)
9 The term Mach Number is used in connection with the speed of —
(1) ships
(2) light
(3) sound
(4) aero planes
Ans. (4)
10. Mahe which is situated on the Malabar coast on the Western Ghats is apart of:
(1) Kerala
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Pondicherry
(4) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (3)
11. Which of the following help human body fight against infection?
(1) Enzymes
(2) White blood cells
(3) Red, blood cells
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
12. The situation with Increasing unemployment and inflation is termed as —
(1) hyperinflation
(2) galloping inflation
(3) stagflation
(4) reflation
Ans. (2)
13 The basic attribute of a formal organization is
(1) Esteem and prestige
(2) Roles and duties
(3) Dominance and supremacy
(4) Rules and regulations
Ans. (4)
14. Match List-I (Person) with List-II (Area in which Distinguished) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Area in which Distinguished)
A. Rajendera Shah 1. Film industry
B. Naresh Trehan 2. Computer industry
C. Azim Premji 3. Automobile industry
D. Jagdish Khattar 4. Medical science
5. Literature
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 3 1 4
(2) 5 4 2 3
(3) 2 4 1 3
(4) 5 3 2 4
Ans. (2)
Directions: The following eight (8) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Code:
(1) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
15. Assertion (A): If two bodies of equal weight—one cylindrical and another conical are floating in water, then their depths of immersion shall be equal.
Reason (R): Weight of the liquid displaced by a floating body is equal to weight of the body.
Ans. (4)
16. Assertion (A): If a domestic refrigerator with its door open is kept running in a room, then it shall be cooling the room like an air-conditioner does.
Reason (R): Energy can be converted from one form to another.
Ans. (4)
17. Assertion (A): If market rate of interest falls, then the prices shall rise.
Reason (R): Price rise is a result of increase in the demand.
Ans. (1)
18. Assertion (A): Alkalis are frequently used for cleaning utensils and clothes in households.
Reason (R): Alkalis readily dissolve in water.
Ans. (2)
19. Assertion (A): Equatorial Belt is a zone of calm.
Reason (R): There is almost no horizontal movement of air in the Equatorial Belt.
Ans. (1)
20. Assertion (A): In nature, compounds of carbon abound both in numbers and variety than those of any other known element.
Reason (R): Unlike other elements, carbon is an amphoteric element with ability, both for lending and for accepting electrons, while the metals are only lenders and non-metals are acceptors.
Ans. (1)
21. Assertion (A): Infants are given triple antigen injection.
Reason (R): It immunizes them against diphtheria, tetanus, and polio.
Ans. (2)
22. Assertion (A): When a ship moves from the sea water into freshwater of a river the ship will sink further.
Reason (R): The density of sea water is less than that of freshwater.
Ans. (3)
23. Which one of the following is not a Defense Public Sector Undertaking?
(1) Bharat Dynamics Limited
(2) Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited
(3) Bharat Earth Moves Limited
(4) Hindustan Shipyard Limited
Ans. (4)
24. Match List-I (Defense Training Institute) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Defense Training Institute) (Location)
A. Army School of Physical Training 1. Dr. Ambedkar Nagar (Mhow)
B. College of Defense Management 2. Secunderabad
C. Naval college of Engineering 3. Pune
D. Military College of Telecommunication Engineering 4. Lonavala
5. Dehradun
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 5 2 3 1
(3) 3 2 4 1
(4) 5 1 3 2
Ans. (3)
25. In the decreasing order of the length of the rivers, the correct sequence is
(1) Brahmaputra—Ganga— Godavari—Narmada
(2) Ganga — Godavari — Brahmaputra—Narmada
(3) Brahmaputra—Narmada— Godavari—Ganga
(4) Ganga—Brahmaputra— Godavari – Narmada
Ans. (1)
26. The Tropic of Cancer passes through:
(1) India and Iran
(2) Iran and Pakistan
(3) India and Saudi Arabia
(4) Iran and Iraq
Ans. (3)
27. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constituent Assembly started functioning in December 1946
2. Jawaharlal Nehru was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
3. The Constituent Assembly adopted the constitution of India on 26th November.1949
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1, 2, and 3
(2) 1 and 3
(3) 3 only
(4) l only
Ans. (2)
28. Which of the following Indian cricketers was/were never appointed as captain of the Indian test cricket team?
1. S. Venkatarhavan
2. K. Srikanth
3. Mohinder Amarnath
4. Syed Kirmani
Select the correct answer using$ the codes given below:
Code:
(1) 1 and 3
(2) 4 only
(3) 3 and 4
(4) 2 only
Ans. (4)
29. Consider the following statements:
1. The constitution (42nd Amendment) Act was enacted during the emergency.
2. The amendments under this Act restricted the jurisdiction of the supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of these statements is/are correct’?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both land 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
30. Recommendations to the President on the specified Union -State fiscal relations are made by the -
(1) Finance Minister
(2) Reserve Bank of India
(3) Finance Commission
(4) Planning Commission
Ans. (3)
31. Which one of the following instruments is used in a submarine to get the view above the surface of water?
(1) Periscope
(2) Telescope
(3) Digital camera
(4) Kaleidoscope
Ans. (1)
32. Match List-I (National Park/ Sanctuary) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (National Park /Sanctuary) List-II (State)
A. Nandadevi National Park 1. Rajasthan
B. Keoladeo National Park 2. Assam
C. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary 3. Gujarat
D. Sasan Gir National Park 4. Mizoram
5. Uttaranchal
Code:
A B C D
(1) 2 3 4 1
(2) 5 1 2 3
(3) 2 1 4 3
(4) 5 3 2 1
Ans. (2)
33. Consider the following statements regarding the Chakiarkoothu form of dance:
1. It is performed by Chakiar caste.
2. It cannot be traditionally witnessed by the higher caster Hindus.
3. Mizhavu is the accompanying instrument.
4. Its theatre form is Called koothambalam.
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) 1, 2 and 4
(2) 1, 2 and 3
(3) 2, 3 and 4
(4) 1. 2 and 4
Ans. (2)
Directions : The following 10 (ten) items consist of two statements; one labelled as the ‘Assertion A’ and the other as ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion ‘A’ and the Reason ‘R’ are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer to these items using the codes given:
Codes:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is hot a correct explanation of A
(3) A is’ true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
34. Assertion (A): In Australia, Cattle rearing is done more for meat than for milk.
Reason (R): Australians are traditionally non-vegetarians.
Ans. (2)
35. Assertion (A): In human beings. the females play a major role in determining the sex of the offspring.
Reason (R): Women have two ‘X’ chromosomes
Ans. (4)
36. Assertion (A): Large cold storage plants use ammonia as refrigerant while domestic refrigerators use Chloro-Fluoro -Carbons.
Reason (R): Ammonia can be liquefied at ambient temperatures at low pressures.
Ans. (2)
37. Assertion (A): The frequency of floods is North Indian plains has increased during the last couple of decades.
Reason (R): There has been reduction in the depth of river valleys due to deposition of silt.
Ans. (1)
38. Assertion (A): The rate of growth of India’s exports has shown an appreciable increase after 1991.
Reason (R): The Government of India has resorted to devaluation.
Ans. (3)
39. Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgow described the August Movement of 1942 as the most serious rebellion since Sopoy Mutiny.
Reason. (R): There was massive upsurge of the peasantry in certain areas.
Ans. (2)
40 Assertion (A): “D N A Finger Printing has become a powerful tool to establish paternity and identity of criminals in rape and assault cases.
Reason (R): Trace evidences such as hairs, saliva and dried semen are adequate for D.N.A. analysis.
Ans. (2)
41. Assertion (A): Punjab is an important exporter of rice.
Reason (R): This state leads in the production of rice.
Ans. (1)
42. Assertion (A): Kushinagar was the capital of Malla Republic.
Reason (R): Mahatma Buddha got Mahaparinirvana at Kushinagar.
Ans. (2)
43. Assertion (A): Terrace cultivation In Garhwal is eco-friendly.
Reason (R): It ensures land and water conservation on the hill sides.
Ans. (1)
44. Match List-I (Industrial processes) with List-II (Industry with which associated) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Cracking 1. Rubber
B. Smelting 2. Petroleum
C. Hydrogenation 3. Copper
D. Vulcanization 4. Edible Fats
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 2 1 4
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 2 3 1 4
(4) 3 2 4 1
Ans. (2)
45. The Indian National Army (I.N.A) came into existence in 1943 in:
(1) Japan
(2) Then Burma
(3) Singapore
(4) Then Malaya
Ans. (3)
46. Which one among .the following has the largest shipyard in India?
(1) Kolkata
(2) Kochi
(3) Mumbai
(4) Visakhapatnam
Ans. (2)
47. At the time of partition of India, which one of the following provinces of British India came forward with a plan for United and Independent existence?
(1) Punjab
(2) Assam
(3) Bengal
(4) Bihar
Ans. (1)
48. What is Digital Safe?
(1) A new scheme launched by Punjab National Bank
(2) This is a safe suit by ‘Ozone Company’
(3) This is new spacecraft suit by NASA
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
49. Expand ISLFTA:
(1) Indo Srilanka Free trade Agreement
(2) Indo Singapore Free Trade Agreement
(3) Indo Srilanka Free Tariff Agreement
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
50. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?
1. The Chairman of Finance Commission
2. The Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission
3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory
Choose the answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2
(3) l and 3
(4) 1 and 3
Ans. (1)
Name of Ports:
1. Kakinada
2. Karwar
3. Mangalore
4; Tuticorin
5. Veraval
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 2 3 5
(2) 5 2 4 1
(3) 1 3 4 2
(4) 5 3 2 1
Ans. (2)
2. Match List-I (Distinguished Ladies) with List-II (Position/Area of Work) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Distinguished Ladies) (Position/Area of Work)
A. Aruna Roy 1. Chairperson, Central Social Welfare Board
B. Poornima Advani 2. Chairperson, National Dairy Development Board
C. Amrita Patel 3. Community Development
D. Mridula Sinha 4. Chairperson, National Commission for Women
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 4 2 1
(2) 2 1 3 4
(3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 2 4 3 1
Ans. (1)
3. The given map refers to the kingdom of:
(1) Akbar at the time of capture of Khandesh in 1601
(2) Akbar at the time of his death in 1605
(3) Aurangzeb at the time of capture of Hyderabad
(4) Aurangzeb at the time of his death In 1707
Ans. (1)
4. Match List-I (Vitamins) with List-II (Disease caused by their Deficiency) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the List:
List-I (Vitamins) List-II (Diseases their Deficiency)
A. Vitamin A 1. Night blindness
B. Vitamin B1 2. Scurvy
C. Vitamin C 3. Beriberi
D. Vitamin D 4. Rickets
Code:
A B C D
(1) 2 3 1 4
(2) 1 4 2 3
(3) 2 4 1 3
(4) 1 3 2 4
Ans. (4)
5. Reserve Bank of India is a:
(1) Commercial Bank
(2) Central Bank
(3) Co-operative Bank
(4) Lead Bank
Ans. (2)
6. Ozone layer in the upper atmosphere blocks —
(1) heat rays from the Sun
(2) ultraviolet rays from the Sun
(3) cosmic rays from the space
(4) infrared rays from the Sun
Ans. (2)
7. Paraffin is a by-product of:
(1) petroleum refining
(2) processing of agricultural wastes
(3) cottage industry involving bee-keeping.
(4) leather Industry
Ans. (1)
8. Select the correct sequence in the decreasing order of carbon content:
(1) Pig iron—Cast iron—Mild steel
(2) Mild steel—Pit iron—Cast
(3) Pig iron—Mild steel—Cast iron
(4) Mild steel—Cast iron—Pig iron
Ans. (1)
9 The term Mach Number is used in connection with the speed of —
(1) ships
(2) light
(3) sound
(4) aero planes
Ans. (4)
10. Mahe which is situated on the Malabar coast on the Western Ghats is apart of:
(1) Kerala
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Pondicherry
(4) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (3)
11. Which of the following help human body fight against infection?
(1) Enzymes
(2) White blood cells
(3) Red, blood cells
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
12. The situation with Increasing unemployment and inflation is termed as —
(1) hyperinflation
(2) galloping inflation
(3) stagflation
(4) reflation
Ans. (2)
13 The basic attribute of a formal organization is
(1) Esteem and prestige
(2) Roles and duties
(3) Dominance and supremacy
(4) Rules and regulations
Ans. (4)
14. Match List-I (Person) with List-II (Area in which Distinguished) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Area in which Distinguished)
A. Rajendera Shah 1. Film industry
B. Naresh Trehan 2. Computer industry
C. Azim Premji 3. Automobile industry
D. Jagdish Khattar 4. Medical science
5. Literature
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 3 1 4
(2) 5 4 2 3
(3) 2 4 1 3
(4) 5 3 2 4
Ans. (2)
Directions: The following eight (8) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Code:
(1) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
15. Assertion (A): If two bodies of equal weight—one cylindrical and another conical are floating in water, then their depths of immersion shall be equal.
Reason (R): Weight of the liquid displaced by a floating body is equal to weight of the body.
Ans. (4)
16. Assertion (A): If a domestic refrigerator with its door open is kept running in a room, then it shall be cooling the room like an air-conditioner does.
Reason (R): Energy can be converted from one form to another.
Ans. (4)
17. Assertion (A): If market rate of interest falls, then the prices shall rise.
Reason (R): Price rise is a result of increase in the demand.
Ans. (1)
18. Assertion (A): Alkalis are frequently used for cleaning utensils and clothes in households.
Reason (R): Alkalis readily dissolve in water.
Ans. (2)
19. Assertion (A): Equatorial Belt is a zone of calm.
Reason (R): There is almost no horizontal movement of air in the Equatorial Belt.
Ans. (1)
20. Assertion (A): In nature, compounds of carbon abound both in numbers and variety than those of any other known element.
Reason (R): Unlike other elements, carbon is an amphoteric element with ability, both for lending and for accepting electrons, while the metals are only lenders and non-metals are acceptors.
Ans. (1)
21. Assertion (A): Infants are given triple antigen injection.
Reason (R): It immunizes them against diphtheria, tetanus, and polio.
Ans. (2)
22. Assertion (A): When a ship moves from the sea water into freshwater of a river the ship will sink further.
Reason (R): The density of sea water is less than that of freshwater.
Ans. (3)
23. Which one of the following is not a Defense Public Sector Undertaking?
(1) Bharat Dynamics Limited
(2) Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited
(3) Bharat Earth Moves Limited
(4) Hindustan Shipyard Limited
Ans. (4)
24. Match List-I (Defense Training Institute) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Defense Training Institute) (Location)
A. Army School of Physical Training 1. Dr. Ambedkar Nagar (Mhow)
B. College of Defense Management 2. Secunderabad
C. Naval college of Engineering 3. Pune
D. Military College of Telecommunication Engineering 4. Lonavala
5. Dehradun
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 5 2 3 1
(3) 3 2 4 1
(4) 5 1 3 2
Ans. (3)
25. In the decreasing order of the length of the rivers, the correct sequence is
(1) Brahmaputra—Ganga— Godavari—Narmada
(2) Ganga — Godavari — Brahmaputra—Narmada
(3) Brahmaputra—Narmada— Godavari—Ganga
(4) Ganga—Brahmaputra— Godavari – Narmada
Ans. (1)
26. The Tropic of Cancer passes through:
(1) India and Iran
(2) Iran and Pakistan
(3) India and Saudi Arabia
(4) Iran and Iraq
Ans. (3)
27. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constituent Assembly started functioning in December 1946
2. Jawaharlal Nehru was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
3. The Constituent Assembly adopted the constitution of India on 26th November.1949
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1, 2, and 3
(2) 1 and 3
(3) 3 only
(4) l only
Ans. (2)
28. Which of the following Indian cricketers was/were never appointed as captain of the Indian test cricket team?
1. S. Venkatarhavan
2. K. Srikanth
3. Mohinder Amarnath
4. Syed Kirmani
Select the correct answer using$ the codes given below:
Code:
(1) 1 and 3
(2) 4 only
(3) 3 and 4
(4) 2 only
Ans. (4)
29. Consider the following statements:
1. The constitution (42nd Amendment) Act was enacted during the emergency.
2. The amendments under this Act restricted the jurisdiction of the supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of these statements is/are correct’?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both land 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
30. Recommendations to the President on the specified Union -State fiscal relations are made by the -
(1) Finance Minister
(2) Reserve Bank of India
(3) Finance Commission
(4) Planning Commission
Ans. (3)
31. Which one of the following instruments is used in a submarine to get the view above the surface of water?
(1) Periscope
(2) Telescope
(3) Digital camera
(4) Kaleidoscope
Ans. (1)
32. Match List-I (National Park/ Sanctuary) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (National Park /Sanctuary) List-II (State)
A. Nandadevi National Park 1. Rajasthan
B. Keoladeo National Park 2. Assam
C. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary 3. Gujarat
D. Sasan Gir National Park 4. Mizoram
5. Uttaranchal
Code:
A B C D
(1) 2 3 4 1
(2) 5 1 2 3
(3) 2 1 4 3
(4) 5 3 2 1
Ans. (2)
33. Consider the following statements regarding the Chakiarkoothu form of dance:
1. It is performed by Chakiar caste.
2. It cannot be traditionally witnessed by the higher caster Hindus.
3. Mizhavu is the accompanying instrument.
4. Its theatre form is Called koothambalam.
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) 1, 2 and 4
(2) 1, 2 and 3
(3) 2, 3 and 4
(4) 1. 2 and 4
Ans. (2)
Directions : The following 10 (ten) items consist of two statements; one labelled as the ‘Assertion A’ and the other as ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion ‘A’ and the Reason ‘R’ are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer to these items using the codes given:
Codes:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is hot a correct explanation of A
(3) A is’ true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
34. Assertion (A): In Australia, Cattle rearing is done more for meat than for milk.
Reason (R): Australians are traditionally non-vegetarians.
Ans. (2)
35. Assertion (A): In human beings. the females play a major role in determining the sex of the offspring.
Reason (R): Women have two ‘X’ chromosomes
Ans. (4)
36. Assertion (A): Large cold storage plants use ammonia as refrigerant while domestic refrigerators use Chloro-Fluoro -Carbons.
Reason (R): Ammonia can be liquefied at ambient temperatures at low pressures.
Ans. (2)
37. Assertion (A): The frequency of floods is North Indian plains has increased during the last couple of decades.
Reason (R): There has been reduction in the depth of river valleys due to deposition of silt.
Ans. (1)
38. Assertion (A): The rate of growth of India’s exports has shown an appreciable increase after 1991.
Reason (R): The Government of India has resorted to devaluation.
Ans. (3)
39. Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgow described the August Movement of 1942 as the most serious rebellion since Sopoy Mutiny.
Reason. (R): There was massive upsurge of the peasantry in certain areas.
Ans. (2)
40 Assertion (A): “D N A Finger Printing has become a powerful tool to establish paternity and identity of criminals in rape and assault cases.
Reason (R): Trace evidences such as hairs, saliva and dried semen are adequate for D.N.A. analysis.
Ans. (2)
41. Assertion (A): Punjab is an important exporter of rice.
Reason (R): This state leads in the production of rice.
Ans. (1)
42. Assertion (A): Kushinagar was the capital of Malla Republic.
Reason (R): Mahatma Buddha got Mahaparinirvana at Kushinagar.
Ans. (2)
43. Assertion (A): Terrace cultivation In Garhwal is eco-friendly.
Reason (R): It ensures land and water conservation on the hill sides.
Ans. (1)
44. Match List-I (Industrial processes) with List-II (Industry with which associated) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Cracking 1. Rubber
B. Smelting 2. Petroleum
C. Hydrogenation 3. Copper
D. Vulcanization 4. Edible Fats
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 2 1 4
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 2 3 1 4
(4) 3 2 4 1
Ans. (2)
45. The Indian National Army (I.N.A) came into existence in 1943 in:
(1) Japan
(2) Then Burma
(3) Singapore
(4) Then Malaya
Ans. (3)
46. Which one among .the following has the largest shipyard in India?
(1) Kolkata
(2) Kochi
(3) Mumbai
(4) Visakhapatnam
Ans. (2)
47. At the time of partition of India, which one of the following provinces of British India came forward with a plan for United and Independent existence?
(1) Punjab
(2) Assam
(3) Bengal
(4) Bihar
Ans. (1)
48. What is Digital Safe?
(1) A new scheme launched by Punjab National Bank
(2) This is a safe suit by ‘Ozone Company’
(3) This is new spacecraft suit by NASA
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
49. Expand ISLFTA:
(1) Indo Srilanka Free trade Agreement
(2) Indo Singapore Free Trade Agreement
(3) Indo Srilanka Free Tariff Agreement
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
50. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?
1. The Chairman of Finance Commission
2. The Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission
3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory
Choose the answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2
(3) l and 3
(4) 1 and 3
Ans. (1)
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
Indian
Information Technology and IT enabled serives (ITES-BOP) continue to
chart remarkable growth. The Indian software and services export is
estimated at Rs. 103200 crore (US $23.4 billion) in 2005-06, as compared
to Rs. 80180 crore (US$ 17.7 billion) in 2004-05, an increase of 32 per
cent in dollar terms.
The ITES – BPO
sector
has become the biggest employment generator amongst young college
graduates with the number of jobs almost doubling each year. The no. of
professinals employed in India by IT and ITES sectors is estimated at
1287000 as of March 2006.
National Plan on e-governance
The
national Common Minimum programme adopted by the government accords
high priority to improving the quality of basic governance and in that
contest has proposed to promote e-governance on a massive scale in areas
of concern to the common. A national egovernance plan has accordingly
been drawn up covering 25 mission mode projects and of support
components to be implemented at the Central, State and Local Government
Levels.
MAJOR INITIATIVES IN INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY SECTOR
For
realizing IT objectives, Data Connectivity and Services Delivering
Access points need to be established all over the country, including the
remotest areas. The Government is establishing State Wide Area Networks
(SWANs) at a total outlay of Rs. 3,334 crore. These SWANs will extend
data connectivity of 2 Mega bits per second upto the block level in
State or Union Territory in the country. The block level nodes in turn,
will have a provision to extend connectivity further to the village
level using contemporary wireless technology. The government is also
formulating a proposal to establish 100,000 common service centers that
would extend the reach of electronic services, both government and
private to the village level. Under the scheme, proposals from 26
states/UTs have already been sanctioned.
PC penetration- The
department of Information technology has identified increase of PC
penetration and internet utilization/coverage in the country; and growth
of domestic software market as the thrust area for action during next
2-3 years. The department has set up six committees on low cost PC
manufacturing; Education; e-Govenance, IT for Rural and Social sectors,
Multilingual software Application and Contests; Internet penetration;
and Telemedicine to prepare action plan in the respective sectors.
.IN Domain Name – In
order to bring about a substantially increased proliferation of .IN
Internet domain name, a new .IN Internet domain name policy was
announced by the government in October 2004. It aims at adopting a
liberal and market friendly approach to register large number of IN
domain names. The policy has received wide acceptance country wide. The
.IN inernet domain name registration has crossed 3,50,000 during
December 2007.
Migration of IPV6 from Ipv4 : Internet
protocol version 6 (Ipv6) is the next generation protocol of Internet
to which migration is to take place from the currently used Internet
Protocol version 4 (Ipv4). Ipv6 is essentially an upgrade to the data
networking protocol that powers the internet. Keeping in view the global
trends in Ipv6, the department of Information Technology took the
initiative towards Ipv6 transition and National Roadmap for Ipv6
implementation.
Indian Language Technology – The
benefits of information technology can reach the common man in India
only when the digitised information is available in all Indian
Languages. To enable wide proliferation of ICT in Indian languages,
tools, products and resources should be freely available to the general
public. The hindi software tools and fonts were released in June 2005.
OCEAN DEVELOPMENT
With the ratification of the UN Convention on Law of the Sea, a new
international order has been established for the oceans. India is
represented in almost all the important bodies on oceans. The
oceanographic programmes have national, regional and global importance.
The Department is the nodal agency for several international programmes
in the ocean sector and represents the country in Intergovernmental
Oceanographic Commission (IOC) of UNESCO, Regional Committee of IOC in
Coastal Indian Ocean (IOCINDIO), International Sea-Bed Authority (ISBA)
and the State Parties of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the
Seas (UNCLOS), the Antarctic Treaty System (ATS) and its scientific and
managerial organs - Commission on Conservation of Antarctic Marine
Living Resources (CCAMLR), Council of Managers of National Antarctic
Programme (COMNAP), Scientific Committee on Antarctic Research (SCAR),
etc.
In a significant development the minstry of ocean development has been recently named as the ministry of Earth sciences. The Ministry of Earth Sciences is in charge of matters relating to Ocean Science and Technology, Meteorology, Seismology, Climate and Environmental Sciences and related Earth Sciences.
The Department of Ocean Development was created in July 1981 to serve as a nodal Department for organising, coordinating and promoting ocean development activities in the country, in line with the Ocean Policy Statement. The programmes of the Department are directed towards : (1) Technology Development Programmes for future applications with strategic, industrial and economic significance; (2) Societal Programmes with direct/ indirect benefit for the community by technology applications and pilot project demonstration with the participation of the community for their socio-economic prosperity, and for coastal area development. (3) Marine Resources Programmes for exploration of marine living and non-living resources, techno- economic studies to evolve strategies for sustainable exploration and utilistion, and resource enhancement. (4) Multi-institutional and multi-disciplinary Polar Science Progammes and Antarctic Expeditions with scientific and geopolitical significance; (5) Capacity Building Programme towards self-reliance through basic scientific research in ocean sector, human resource development and establishing Centres of Excellence in academic institutions and (6) Creation of public awareness of ocean, its potential and uses.
Marine Research and Capacity Building is one of the key programme areas of the Department to promote basic research in marine science and establish centres of excellence in academic institution and of self reliance.
In a significant development the minstry of ocean development has been recently named as the ministry of Earth sciences. The Ministry of Earth Sciences is in charge of matters relating to Ocean Science and Technology, Meteorology, Seismology, Climate and Environmental Sciences and related Earth Sciences.
The Department of Ocean Development was created in July 1981 to serve as a nodal Department for organising, coordinating and promoting ocean development activities in the country, in line with the Ocean Policy Statement. The programmes of the Department are directed towards : (1) Technology Development Programmes for future applications with strategic, industrial and economic significance; (2) Societal Programmes with direct/ indirect benefit for the community by technology applications and pilot project demonstration with the participation of the community for their socio-economic prosperity, and for coastal area development. (3) Marine Resources Programmes for exploration of marine living and non-living resources, techno- economic studies to evolve strategies for sustainable exploration and utilistion, and resource enhancement. (4) Multi-institutional and multi-disciplinary Polar Science Progammes and Antarctic Expeditions with scientific and geopolitical significance; (5) Capacity Building Programme towards self-reliance through basic scientific research in ocean sector, human resource development and establishing Centres of Excellence in academic institutions and (6) Creation of public awareness of ocean, its potential and uses.
Marine Research and Capacity Building is one of the key programme areas of the Department to promote basic research in marine science and establish centres of excellence in academic institution and of self reliance.
Sunday, May 20, 2012
Solicitor General of India (past and present)
Solicitor General | Term |
---|---|
C.K.Daphtary | 28.01.1950 – 01.03.1963 |
H.N. Sanyal | 02.03.1963 – 09.09.1964 |
S.V. Gupta | 10.09.1964 – 16.09.1967 |
Niren De | 30.09.1967 – 30.10.1968 |
Jagadish Swarup | 05.06.1969 – 04.06.1972 |
L.N. Sinha | 17.07.1972 – 05.04.1977 |
S.N. Kacker | 05.04.1977 – 02.08.1979 |
Soli Sorabjee | 09.08.1979 – 25.01.1980 |
K. Parasaran | 06.03.1980 – 08.08.1983 |
Milon K. Banerji | 04.04.1986 – 03.04.1989 |
Ashok Desai | 18.12.1989 – 02.12.1990 |
A.D. Giri | 04.12.1990 – 01.12.1991 |
Dipankar P. Gupta | 09.04.1992 – 10.04.1997 |
T.R.Andhyarujina | 11.04.1997 – 04.04.1998 |
Nitte Santhosh Hegde | 10.04.1998 – 07.01.1999 |
Harish Salve | 01.11.1999 - 03.11.2002 |
Kirit N Raval | 04.11.2002 - 19.04.2004 |
G. E. Vahanvati | 20.04.2004 - 07.06.2009 |
Gopal Subramaniam | 15.06.2009 - 14.7.2011 |
Rohinton Nariman | 23.7.2011 - |
Friday, May 18, 2012
Computer Knowledge MCQs
1. A ____ is a named location on a disk where files are stored.
A folder
B pod
C version
D none of the above
Ans (A)
2. The ____ allows you to choose where to go and is located below the Standards Buttons toolbar.
A System menu
B Address bar
C Menu bar
D none of the above
Ans (B)
3. A ____ is a set of computer instructions that carry out a task on the computer.
A program
B database
C memory file
D none of the above
Ans (A)
4. An operating system version designed for home use is Microsoft Windows XP ____.
A Home Edition
B Media Center Edition
C Tablet PC Edition
D none of the above
Ans (A)
5. A user-interface that is easy to use is considered to be ____.
A user-happy
B user-simple
C user-friendly
D none of the above
Ans (C)
6. When you press and release the secondary mouse button you are ____.
A Right-clicking
B Left-clicking
C either a. or b.
D neither a. nor b.
Ans (A)
7. Another term for hyperlink is ____.
A link
B source
C bar
D none of the above
Ans (A)
8. A ____ is a flash memory storage device that plugs into a USB port.
A USB snap drive
B USB flash drive
C USB memory maker drive
D none of the above
Ans (B)
9. An operating system version designed for use with a Media Center PC is Microsoft Windows XP ____.
A Home Edition
B Media Center Edition
C Tablet PC Edition
D none of the above
Ans (B)
10. A graphical user interface displays ____.
A graphics
B text
C both (A) and (B).
D neither (A) nor (B).
Ans (C)
11. When you quickly press and release the left mouse button twice, you are ____.
A Primary-clicking
B Double-clicking
C pointing
D none of the above
Ans : Try Yourself!
12. Underlined text, such as text and folder names is referred to as a ____.
A hyperlink
B menu
C source drive
D none of the above
Ans (A)
13. The ____ program compresses larger files into a smaller file.
A WinZip
B WinShrink
C WinStyle
D none of the above
Ans (A)
14. An operating system version designed for use with a tablet PC is Microsoft Windows XP ____.
A Home Edition
B Media Center Edition
C Tablet PC Edition
D none of the above
Ans (C)
15. The ____ displays the name of every computer user on the computer.
A Wish list screen
B Command screen
C Welcome screen
D none of the above
Ans (C)
16. The ____ contains commands associated with the My computer window.
A Standards menu
B Start menu
C System menu
D none of the above
Ans (C)
17. Press the ____ button to have the window fill the entire screen.
A Close
B Maximize
C Minimize
D none of the above
Ans (B)
18. The ____ is the drive containing the files to be copied.
A source drive
B destination drive
C USB drive
D none of the above
Ans (A)
19. A ____ allows you to write on screen with a digital pen and convert that writing into characters that the PC can process.
A monitor RS
B tablet PC
C database manager
D media center
Ans (B)
20. A ____ is a pointing device.
A monitor
B mouse
C keyboard
D none of the above
Ans (B)
A folder
B pod
C version
D none of the above
Ans (A)
2. The ____ allows you to choose where to go and is located below the Standards Buttons toolbar.
A System menu
B Address bar
C Menu bar
D none of the above
Ans (B)
3. A ____ is a set of computer instructions that carry out a task on the computer.
A program
B database
C memory file
D none of the above
Ans (A)
4. An operating system version designed for home use is Microsoft Windows XP ____.
A Home Edition
B Media Center Edition
C Tablet PC Edition
D none of the above
Ans (A)
5. A user-interface that is easy to use is considered to be ____.
A user-happy
B user-simple
C user-friendly
D none of the above
Ans (C)
6. When you press and release the secondary mouse button you are ____.
A Right-clicking
B Left-clicking
C either a. or b.
D neither a. nor b.
Ans (A)
7. Another term for hyperlink is ____.
A link
B source
C bar
D none of the above
Ans (A)
8. A ____ is a flash memory storage device that plugs into a USB port.
A USB snap drive
B USB flash drive
C USB memory maker drive
D none of the above
Ans (B)
9. An operating system version designed for use with a Media Center PC is Microsoft Windows XP ____.
A Home Edition
B Media Center Edition
C Tablet PC Edition
D none of the above
Ans (B)
10. A graphical user interface displays ____.
A graphics
B text
C both (A) and (B).
D neither (A) nor (B).
Ans (C)
11. When you quickly press and release the left mouse button twice, you are ____.
A Primary-clicking
B Double-clicking
C pointing
D none of the above
Ans : Try Yourself!
12. Underlined text, such as text and folder names is referred to as a ____.
A hyperlink
B menu
C source drive
D none of the above
Ans (A)
13. The ____ program compresses larger files into a smaller file.
A WinZip
B WinShrink
C WinStyle
D none of the above
Ans (A)
14. An operating system version designed for use with a tablet PC is Microsoft Windows XP ____.
A Home Edition
B Media Center Edition
C Tablet PC Edition
D none of the above
Ans (C)
15. The ____ displays the name of every computer user on the computer.
A Wish list screen
B Command screen
C Welcome screen
D none of the above
Ans (C)
16. The ____ contains commands associated with the My computer window.
A Standards menu
B Start menu
C System menu
D none of the above
Ans (C)
17. Press the ____ button to have the window fill the entire screen.
A Close
B Maximize
C Minimize
D none of the above
Ans (B)
18. The ____ is the drive containing the files to be copied.
A source drive
B destination drive
C USB drive
D none of the above
Ans (A)
19. A ____ allows you to write on screen with a digital pen and convert that writing into characters that the PC can process.
A monitor RS
B tablet PC
C database manager
D media center
Ans (B)
20. A ____ is a pointing device.
A monitor
B mouse
C keyboard
D none of the above
Ans (B)
Sunday, May 13, 2012
REFINERIES IN INDIA
As of July, 2005 there are a total of
18 refineries in the country comprising 17 in the Public Sector,
one in the private sector. The company-wise locations and capacity
of the refineries as on 1.7.2005 are given below:
S.NO. | Name of the company | Location of the Refinery | Capacity(MMTPA)* |
1.
| Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) |
Guwahati
|
1.00
|
2.
| IOCL |
Barauni
|
6.00
|
3.
| IOCL |
Koyali
|
13.70
|
4.
| IOCL |
Haldia
|
6.00
|
5.
| IOCL |
Mathura
|
8.00
|
6.
| IOCL |
Digboi
|
0.65
|
7.
| IOCL |
Panipat
|
6.00
|
8.
| Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) |
Mumbai
|
5.50
|
9.
| HPCL |
Visakhapatnam
|
7.50
|
10.
| Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) |
Mumbai
|
6.90
|
11.
| Chennai Petroleum Corporation Limited (CPCL) |
Manali
|
9.50
|
12.
| CPCL |
Nagapattnam
|
1.00
|
13.
| Kochi Refineries Ltd. (KRL) |
Kochi
|
7.50
|
14.
| Bongaigaon Refinery & Petrochemicals Ltd. (BRPL) |
Bongaigaon
|
2.35
|
15.
| Numaligarh Refinery Ltd.(NRL) |
Numaligarh
|
3.00
|
16.
| Mangalore Refinery & Petrochemicals Ltd. (MRPL) |
Mangalore
|
9.69
|
17.
| Tatipaka refinery (ONGC) |
Andhra
Pradesh
|
0.078
|
18.
| Reliance Petroleum Ltd. (RPL).Pvt. Sector |
Jamnagar
|
33.00
|
TOTAL
|
127.37
|
GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which Indian state stands first in the production of gold?
a) Karnataka
b) Maharashtra
c) Punjab
d) Orissa
2. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was formed in
a) 1982
b) 1985
c) 1980
d) 1990
3. Which Indian states lead in the production of rice?
a) West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh
b) Punjab and Haryana
c) West Benagal and Punjab
d) Haryana and Assam
4. Where is the headquarters of the Reserve Bank of India?
a) Mumbai
b) Delhi
c) Chennai
d) Kolkatta
5. Which Union Territory has the lowest percentage of people living below the poverty line?
a) Lakshadweep
b) Andaman and Nicobar islands
c) Chandigarh
d) Delhi
6. Coal is the most important traditional source of energy in India. Which position does India occupy in the global production of coal?
a) first position
b) third position
c) fifth position
d) second position
7. Which of the following banks operates in relation to the small industries?
a) SIDBI
b) IDBI
c) ICICI
d) NABARD
8. Which Indian state stands first in the production of tobacco?
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Bihar
9. Among the following crops which is the highest foreign exchange earner for India?
a) jute
b) sugar cane
c) cotton
d) tea
10. India is the second largest producer of jute in the world. Which country stands first in the production of jute?
a) China
b) Japan
c) Canada
d) Bangladesh
11. Which Indian state stands first in the production of jute?
a) West Bengal
b) Orissa
c) Uttraranchal
d) Assam
12. In which of the following year was Planning Commission set up?
a) 1947
b) 1950
c) 1953
d) 1956
13. Which Indian state has the largest number of cotton textile mills?
a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Maharashtra
c) Gujarat
d) West Bengal
14. The National Thermal Power corporation was set up in
a) 1975
b) 1972
c) 1973
d) 1974
15. Which Indian state stands first in the production of lignite?
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Maharshatra
d) Uttar Pradesh
16. The Indian Oil Corporation was set up in
a) 1964
b) 1965
c) 1966
d) 1970
17. Which of the following pair of cities are known for the production of machine tools, heavy electrical machinery, ships and aeronautical parts?
a) Hyderabad and Vishakapatnam
b) Kochi and Thiruvananthapuram
c) Pune and Nasik
d) Bangalore and Mysore
18. Which Indian state stands first in the production of tea?
a) Assam
b) Karnataka
c) Kerala
d) Orissa
19. In which year was the Gas Authority of India Ltd set up?
a) 1982
b) 1983
c) 1984
d) 1985
20. Which of the following is the oldest large scale industry in India?
a) cotton textiles industry
b) jute and jute goods industry
c) coir and coir products industry
d) iron and steel industry
21. With the aid and collaboration of which of the following countries was the Durgapur steel plant set up in India?
a) United Kingdom
b) United States of America
c) Russia
d) Germany
22. The steel plants at Bhilai and Bokaro were built with the aid and collaboration of
a) United Kingdom
b) USSR
c) USA
d) Germany
23. Where is the headquarters of the Indian petro-chemicals corporation?
a) Mumbai
b) Guwahati
c) Vadodara
d) Visakhapatnam
24. The Ennore Thermal power station is in
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Maharashtra
d) Karnataka
25. The Hirakud hydroelectric power project is in
a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Orissa
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Punjab
2. 1982
3. West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh
4. Mumbai
5. Lakshadweep
6. fifth position
7. SIDBI
8. Andhra Pradesh
9. jute
10. Bangladesh
11. West Bengal
12. 1950
13. Maharashtra
14. 1975
15. Tamil Nadu
16. 1964
17. Hyderabad and Vishakapatnam
18. Assam
19. 1984
20. cotton textiles industry
21. United Kingdom
22. USSR
23. Vadodara
24. Tamil Nadu
25. Orissa
a) Karnataka
b) Maharashtra
c) Punjab
d) Orissa
2. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was formed in
a) 1982
b) 1985
c) 1980
d) 1990
3. Which Indian states lead in the production of rice?
a) West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh
b) Punjab and Haryana
c) West Benagal and Punjab
d) Haryana and Assam
4. Where is the headquarters of the Reserve Bank of India?
a) Mumbai
b) Delhi
c) Chennai
d) Kolkatta
5. Which Union Territory has the lowest percentage of people living below the poverty line?
a) Lakshadweep
b) Andaman and Nicobar islands
c) Chandigarh
d) Delhi
6. Coal is the most important traditional source of energy in India. Which position does India occupy in the global production of coal?
a) first position
b) third position
c) fifth position
d) second position
7. Which of the following banks operates in relation to the small industries?
a) SIDBI
b) IDBI
c) ICICI
d) NABARD
8. Which Indian state stands first in the production of tobacco?
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Bihar
9. Among the following crops which is the highest foreign exchange earner for India?
a) jute
b) sugar cane
c) cotton
d) tea
10. India is the second largest producer of jute in the world. Which country stands first in the production of jute?
a) China
b) Japan
c) Canada
d) Bangladesh
11. Which Indian state stands first in the production of jute?
a) West Bengal
b) Orissa
c) Uttraranchal
d) Assam
12. In which of the following year was Planning Commission set up?
a) 1947
b) 1950
c) 1953
d) 1956
13. Which Indian state has the largest number of cotton textile mills?
a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Maharashtra
c) Gujarat
d) West Bengal
14. The National Thermal Power corporation was set up in
a) 1975
b) 1972
c) 1973
d) 1974
15. Which Indian state stands first in the production of lignite?
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Maharshatra
d) Uttar Pradesh
16. The Indian Oil Corporation was set up in
a) 1964
b) 1965
c) 1966
d) 1970
17. Which of the following pair of cities are known for the production of machine tools, heavy electrical machinery, ships and aeronautical parts?
a) Hyderabad and Vishakapatnam
b) Kochi and Thiruvananthapuram
c) Pune and Nasik
d) Bangalore and Mysore
18. Which Indian state stands first in the production of tea?
a) Assam
b) Karnataka
c) Kerala
d) Orissa
19. In which year was the Gas Authority of India Ltd set up?
a) 1982
b) 1983
c) 1984
d) 1985
20. Which of the following is the oldest large scale industry in India?
a) cotton textiles industry
b) jute and jute goods industry
c) coir and coir products industry
d) iron and steel industry
21. With the aid and collaboration of which of the following countries was the Durgapur steel plant set up in India?
a) United Kingdom
b) United States of America
c) Russia
d) Germany
22. The steel plants at Bhilai and Bokaro were built with the aid and collaboration of
a) United Kingdom
b) USSR
c) USA
d) Germany
23. Where is the headquarters of the Indian petro-chemicals corporation?
a) Mumbai
b) Guwahati
c) Vadodara
d) Visakhapatnam
24. The Ennore Thermal power station is in
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Maharashtra
d) Karnataka
25. The Hirakud hydroelectric power project is in
a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Orissa
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Punjab
Answers
1. Karnataka2. 1982
3. West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh
4. Mumbai
5. Lakshadweep
6. fifth position
7. SIDBI
8. Andhra Pradesh
9. jute
10. Bangladesh
11. West Bengal
12. 1950
13. Maharashtra
14. 1975
15. Tamil Nadu
16. 1964
17. Hyderabad and Vishakapatnam
18. Assam
19. 1984
20. cotton textiles industry
21. United Kingdom
22. USSR
23. Vadodara
24. Tamil Nadu
25. Orissa
Friday, May 11, 2012
SPORTS RELATED PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Narain Karthikenyan is the sportsman in the field of—
(A) Formula One Car Racing
(B) Shooting
(C) Chess
(D) Golf
Ans : (A)
2. Which of the following Tennis players announced his retirement from the game recently ?
(A) Benjamin Becker
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Andre Agassi
(D) Lleyton Hewit
Ans : (C)
3. Which team won FIFA Club World Cup 2011 in December 2011 final against which of the following countries ?
(A) Manchester United
(B) Barcelona
(C) Al-Sadd
(D) Kashiawa Reysol
Ans : (B)
4. Usain Bolt, The 100-metres race world record holder is from which countries ?
(A) Jamaica
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) Nigeria
Ans : (A)
5. What is the total number of matches which were played in the FIFA World Cup - 2010 in Germany ?
(A) 48
(B) 52
(C) 63
(D) 64
Ans : (D)
6. The 20th Commonwealth Games will be held in 2014 in—
(A) Jaipur
(B) Kolkata
(C) Glasgow
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (C)
7. M. S. Dhoni is the first wicket keeper to make two centuries in One-day International cricket in India. He made these centuries while playing against—
(A) Sri Lanka and Pakistan
(B) Pakistan and Bangladesh
(C) Bangladesh and New Zealand
(D) Australia and Sri Lanka
Ans : (A)
8. Which of the following Trophies/Cups is associated with the game of Golf ?
(A) Iran Cup
(B) Padmawati Trophy
(C) Topolino Trophy
(D) V. C. Gupta Trophy
Ans : (C)
9. OTIS is brand name of—
(A) Software
(B) Shoes
(C) Lifts and elevators
(D) Chemicals and paints
Ans : (C)
10. The term ‘Grand Slam’ is associated with—
(A) Table Tennis
(B) Chess
(C) Football
(D) Bridge
Ans : (D)
11. The International Cricket Council (ICC) awarded the right to host the Cricket World Cup - 2011 to three countries jointly. Which of the following is not amongst these four countries ?
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Sri Lanka
Ans : (B)
12. “Crown Prince Cup Basketball” in which India won a Bronze Medal was organized recently in—
(A) India
(B) Thailand
(C) China
(D) Japan
Ans : (B)
13. Who amongst the following won the Australian Open 2012 Men’s Singles Tennis Cup held January 2012 ?
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Novak Djokovic
(C) Bob Bryan
(D) Vera Zvonareva
Ans : (B)
14. Which of the following countries won Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey Tournament 2011 ?
(A) Australia
(B) Argentina
(C) Malaysia
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (A)
15. Colombo cup is associated with the game of—
(A) Hockey
(B) Basketball
(C) Football
(D) Cricket
Ans : (C)
16. Which of the following terms is not related with the game of Hockey ?
(A) Follow on
(B) Tie breaker
(C) Hat trick
(D) Half volley
Ans : (A)
17. Mr. Alan Issac who is newly appointed Vice-President of the International Cricket Council (ICC) is from which of the following countries ?
(A) New Zealand
(B) South Africa
(C) England
(D) Australia
Ans : (A)
18. The term ‘Beamer’ is associated with—
(A) Football
(B) Hockey
(C) Cricket
(D) Chess
Ans : (C)
19. Of which country is Bull-fighting the National game?
(A) Spain
(B) Japan
(C) Portugal
(D) Poland
Ans : (A)
20. The 2008 Olympic Games were held at—
(A) Beijing
(B) Montreal
(C) Atlanta
(D) London
Ans : (A)
(A) Formula One Car Racing
(B) Shooting
(C) Chess
(D) Golf
Ans : (A)
2. Which of the following Tennis players announced his retirement from the game recently ?
(A) Benjamin Becker
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Andre Agassi
(D) Lleyton Hewit
Ans : (C)
3. Which team won FIFA Club World Cup 2011 in December 2011 final against which of the following countries ?
(A) Manchester United
(B) Barcelona
(C) Al-Sadd
(D) Kashiawa Reysol
Ans : (B)
4. Usain Bolt, The 100-metres race world record holder is from which countries ?
(A) Jamaica
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) Nigeria
Ans : (A)
5. What is the total number of matches which were played in the FIFA World Cup - 2010 in Germany ?
(A) 48
(B) 52
(C) 63
(D) 64
Ans : (D)
6. The 20th Commonwealth Games will be held in 2014 in—
(A) Jaipur
(B) Kolkata
(C) Glasgow
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (C)
7. M. S. Dhoni is the first wicket keeper to make two centuries in One-day International cricket in India. He made these centuries while playing against—
(A) Sri Lanka and Pakistan
(B) Pakistan and Bangladesh
(C) Bangladesh and New Zealand
(D) Australia and Sri Lanka
Ans : (A)
8. Which of the following Trophies/Cups is associated with the game of Golf ?
(A) Iran Cup
(B) Padmawati Trophy
(C) Topolino Trophy
(D) V. C. Gupta Trophy
Ans : (C)
9. OTIS is brand name of—
(A) Software
(B) Shoes
(C) Lifts and elevators
(D) Chemicals and paints
Ans : (C)
10. The term ‘Grand Slam’ is associated with—
(A) Table Tennis
(B) Chess
(C) Football
(D) Bridge
Ans : (D)
11. The International Cricket Council (ICC) awarded the right to host the Cricket World Cup - 2011 to three countries jointly. Which of the following is not amongst these four countries ?
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Sri Lanka
Ans : (B)
12. “Crown Prince Cup Basketball” in which India won a Bronze Medal was organized recently in—
(A) India
(B) Thailand
(C) China
(D) Japan
Ans : (B)
13. Who amongst the following won the Australian Open 2012 Men’s Singles Tennis Cup held January 2012 ?
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Novak Djokovic
(C) Bob Bryan
(D) Vera Zvonareva
Ans : (B)
14. Which of the following countries won Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey Tournament 2011 ?
(A) Australia
(B) Argentina
(C) Malaysia
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (A)
15. Colombo cup is associated with the game of—
(A) Hockey
(B) Basketball
(C) Football
(D) Cricket
Ans : (C)
16. Which of the following terms is not related with the game of Hockey ?
(A) Follow on
(B) Tie breaker
(C) Hat trick
(D) Half volley
Ans : (A)
17. Mr. Alan Issac who is newly appointed Vice-President of the International Cricket Council (ICC) is from which of the following countries ?
(A) New Zealand
(B) South Africa
(C) England
(D) Australia
Ans : (A)
18. The term ‘Beamer’ is associated with—
(A) Football
(B) Hockey
(C) Cricket
(D) Chess
Ans : (C)
19. Of which country is Bull-fighting the National game?
(A) Spain
(B) Japan
(C) Portugal
(D) Poland
Ans : (A)
20. The 2008 Olympic Games were held at—
(A) Beijing
(B) Montreal
(C) Atlanta
(D) London
Ans : (A)
QUESTIONS ABOUT SPORTS
1. Victoria Azarenka, who won the Australian Open Tennis women’s singles
title 2012, is from which country ?
(A) USA
(B) Belarus
(C) Germany
(D) Slovakia
Ans : (B)
2. With which one of the following sports is Saurabh Tiwary associated ?
(A) Golf
(B) Snooker
(C) Cricket
(D) Shooting
Ans : (C)
3. Which of the following team has won the ICC World Cup Cricket 2011 ?
(A) Australia
(B) New Zealand
(C) India
(D) England
Ans : (C)
4. Who amongst the following is not a Australian Open Tennis 2012 winner ? (Under any category)
(A) Leander Paes
(B) Serena Williams
(C) Victoria Azarenka
(D) Novak Djokovic
Ans : (B)
5. The National Sports Day is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) August 29th
(B) July 29th
(C) September 29th
(D) August 20th
Ans : (A)
6. Which of the following Cups/Trophies is associated with the game of Football ?
(A) Wimbledon Cup
(B) Evert Cup
(C) Agha Khan Cup
(D) Mardeka Cup
Ans : (D)
7. Which of the following terms is not associated with the game of Lawn Tennis ?
(A) Smash
(B) Slice
(C) Bouncer
(D) Delice
Ans : (C)
8. The South Asia Federation Games were organized recently in which of the following cities ?
(A) Dhaka
(B) Colombo
(C) New Delhi
(D) Kathmandu
Ans : (B)
9. With which game is the ‘Agha Khan Cup’ associated?
(A) Football
(B) Cricket
(C) Badminton
(D) Hockey
Ans : (D)
10. The final match of the Uber Cup Badminton 2010 was played between China and—
(A) Japan
(B) Denmark
(C) Italy
(D) Korea
Ans : (D)
11. Which of the following country will host world team Table Tennis Championship 2012 for men and women both ?
(A) Japan
(B) Germany
(C) Hong Kong
(D) Russia
Ans : (B)
12. The World Sports Award ceremony was held recently in—
(A) Spain
(B) Italy
(C) France
(D) Germany
Ans : (A)
13. Marion Jones is a well known—
(A) Badminton players
(B) Tennis player
(C) Golfer
(D) Athlete
Ans : (D)
14. Which of the following Cups/Trophies is associated with the game of Volleyball ?
(A) India Swarn Cup
(B) Ramanujam Trophy
(C) Lincoln Trophy
(D) Dhyanchand Trophy
Ans : (A)
15. FIFA World Cup 2014 will be organized in—
(A) Italy
(B) South Africa
(C) Brazil
(D) Britain
Ans : (C)
16. Which of the following terms is not associated with the game of Cricket ?
(A) Long leg
(B) Hook
(C) Love
(D) Midwicket
Ans : (C)
17. ‘Durand Cup’ is associated with the game of—
(A) Hockey
(B) Lawn Tennis
(C) Badminton
(D) Football
Ans : (D)
18. For which game is the ‘Indira Gandhi Gold Cup’ being awarded ?
(A) Women’s Hockey
(B) Women’s Football
(C) Women’s Cricket
(D) Women’s Badminton
Ans : (A)
19. Lord Hanuman is symbolised with which sports ?
(A) Boxing
(B) Wrestling
(C) Rugby
(D) Archery
Ans : (B)
20. On the basis of performance in 100 metre run in the last Beijing Olympic Games the fastest man in the world is—
(A) Maurice Green
(B) Shawn Crawford
(C) Usain Bolt
(D) Francis Obekwelu
Ans : (C)
(A) USA
(B) Belarus
(C) Germany
(D) Slovakia
Ans : (B)
2. With which one of the following sports is Saurabh Tiwary associated ?
(A) Golf
(B) Snooker
(C) Cricket
(D) Shooting
Ans : (C)
3. Which of the following team has won the ICC World Cup Cricket 2011 ?
(A) Australia
(B) New Zealand
(C) India
(D) England
Ans : (C)
4. Who amongst the following is not a Australian Open Tennis 2012 winner ? (Under any category)
(A) Leander Paes
(B) Serena Williams
(C) Victoria Azarenka
(D) Novak Djokovic
Ans : (B)
5. The National Sports Day is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) August 29th
(B) July 29th
(C) September 29th
(D) August 20th
Ans : (A)
6. Which of the following Cups/Trophies is associated with the game of Football ?
(A) Wimbledon Cup
(B) Evert Cup
(C) Agha Khan Cup
(D) Mardeka Cup
Ans : (D)
7. Which of the following terms is not associated with the game of Lawn Tennis ?
(A) Smash
(B) Slice
(C) Bouncer
(D) Delice
Ans : (C)
8. The South Asia Federation Games were organized recently in which of the following cities ?
(A) Dhaka
(B) Colombo
(C) New Delhi
(D) Kathmandu
Ans : (B)
9. With which game is the ‘Agha Khan Cup’ associated?
(A) Football
(B) Cricket
(C) Badminton
(D) Hockey
Ans : (D)
10. The final match of the Uber Cup Badminton 2010 was played between China and—
(A) Japan
(B) Denmark
(C) Italy
(D) Korea
Ans : (D)
11. Which of the following country will host world team Table Tennis Championship 2012 for men and women both ?
(A) Japan
(B) Germany
(C) Hong Kong
(D) Russia
Ans : (B)
12. The World Sports Award ceremony was held recently in—
(A) Spain
(B) Italy
(C) France
(D) Germany
Ans : (A)
13. Marion Jones is a well known—
(A) Badminton players
(B) Tennis player
(C) Golfer
(D) Athlete
Ans : (D)
14. Which of the following Cups/Trophies is associated with the game of Volleyball ?
(A) India Swarn Cup
(B) Ramanujam Trophy
(C) Lincoln Trophy
(D) Dhyanchand Trophy
Ans : (A)
15. FIFA World Cup 2014 will be organized in—
(A) Italy
(B) South Africa
(C) Brazil
(D) Britain
Ans : (C)
16. Which of the following terms is not associated with the game of Cricket ?
(A) Long leg
(B) Hook
(C) Love
(D) Midwicket
Ans : (C)
17. ‘Durand Cup’ is associated with the game of—
(A) Hockey
(B) Lawn Tennis
(C) Badminton
(D) Football
Ans : (D)
18. For which game is the ‘Indira Gandhi Gold Cup’ being awarded ?
(A) Women’s Hockey
(B) Women’s Football
(C) Women’s Cricket
(D) Women’s Badminton
Ans : (A)
19. Lord Hanuman is symbolised with which sports ?
(A) Boxing
(B) Wrestling
(C) Rugby
(D) Archery
Ans : (B)
20. On the basis of performance in 100 metre run in the last Beijing Olympic Games the fastest man in the world is—
(A) Maurice Green
(B) Shawn Crawford
(C) Usain Bolt
(D) Francis Obekwelu
Ans : (C)
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