UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I KEY (EXAM HELD ON: 26-05-2013)

1.    What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a)    The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommen¬dations of the Rajya Sabha
(b)    The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c)    The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d)    The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
Answer (A)

2.    Which      one      of     the      following statements is correct?
(a)    In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b)    The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c)    No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d)    In the case of a the Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
    Answer (C)

3.    Which-one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
    Geographical Feature        Region      
(a)    Abyssinian Plateau:            Arabia
(b)    Atlas Mountains:            North Western Africa
(c)    Guiana Highlands:        :    South Western Africa          
(d)    Okavango Basin:            Patagonia
Answer (B)

4.    With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements :
1.    The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
2.    The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
3.    At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.
Which   of   the    statements    given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

5.    Recombinant       DNA       technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
1.    across different species of plants
2.    from animals to plants
3.    from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

6.    The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
1.    The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.   
2.    As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
3.    The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only-
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

7.    Consider the following:
1.    Star tortoise
2.    Monitor lizard
3.    Pygmy hog
4.    Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

8.    Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
1.    Arsenic
2.    Sorbitol
3.    Fluoride
4.    Formaldehyde
5.    Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 3 only
(b)    2, 4 and 5 only
(c)    1, 3 and 5 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer (C)

9.    With   reference   to   Indian   History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
(a)    directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b)    nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c)    elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d)    selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
Answer (C)

10.    Consider the following animals:
1.    Sea cow
2.    Sea-horse
3.    Sea lion
Which of the above is/ are mammal/mammals?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 3 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

11.    Consider the following statements:
1.    An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2.    If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which   of   the   statements   given above is/ are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor
Answer (D)

12.    Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can
1.    take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2.    be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3.    speak in the Lok Sabha
4.    vote in the Lok Sabha
Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 4
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    1 and 3 only
Answer (C)

13.    With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.    Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2.    Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3.    Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

14.    Variations-in the length of daytime and   nighttime   from   season   to season are due to
(a)    the earth's rotation on its axis
(b)    the   earth's   revolution   round the sun in an elliptical manner
(c)    latitudinal position of the place
(d)    revolution  of the  earth  on  a tilted axis
Answer (D)

15.    The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
1.    It occupies a linear rift valley.
2.    It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3.    The land  slopes  to  the  west from Central India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

16.    On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
(a)    is   found   in   atmosphere   as moisture and clouds
(b)    is  found in  freshwater lakes and rivers
(c)    exists as groundwater
(d)    exists as soil moisture
Answer (C)

17.    Consider the following pairs:
1.   Nokrek Biosphere Reserve    : Garo Hills
2.   Logtak (Loktak)Lake    Barail Ranee
3.Namdapha National Park   :    Dafla Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

18.    Consider the following:
1.    Electromagnetic radiation
2.    Geothermal energy
3.    Gravitational force
4.    Plate movements
5.    Rotation of the earth
6.    Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
(a)    1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b)    1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)    2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer (D)

19.    Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1.    National Development Council
2.    Planning Commission
3.    Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

20.    The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for
(a)    the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
(b)    the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
(c)    the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
(d)    writing off all peasant debts
Answer (A)

21.    The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
(a)    with   the   consent   of  all   the States
(b)    with    the    consent    of    the majority of States
(c)    with the consent of the States concerned
(d)    without the consent of any state
Answer (D)

22.    In   the   grasslands,   trees   do   not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of
(a)    insects and fungi
(b)    limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients,
(c)    water limits and fire
(d)    None of the above
Answer (C)

23.    Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity
(a)    Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(b)    Mangroves, grasslands, lakes
(c)    Mangroves, grasslands, lakes oceans
(d)    Oceans, mangroves, lakes grasslands
Answer (D)

24.  Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in
(a)    Desert margins, liable to strong wing action
(b)    low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
(c)    Scrublands, liable to spread to weed growth
(d)    None to the above
Answer (A)

25.    The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a)    To provide self- governance
(b)    To recognize traditional rights
(c)    To create autonomous regions
(d) To free tribal people form exploitation
Answer (C)


26.    Under   the   Scheduled   Tribes   and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a)    State Forest Department
(b)    District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c)    Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(d)    Gram Sabha
Answer (D)

27.    Improper handling and   storage   of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Affetoxins are produced by
(a)    bacteria
(b)    protozoa
(c)    moulds
(d)    viruses
Answer (C)

28.    'Economic     Justice'     as     one     of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
(a)    the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b)    the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c)    the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d)    None of the above
Answer (B)

29.    Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?
1.    Beryllium
2.    Cadmium
3.    Chromium
4.    Heptachlor
5.    Mercury
6.    Lead
7.    Plutonium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(b)    1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)    2, 4, 5 and 7 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer (B)

30.    Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
(a)    carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b)    carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(c)    ozone and carbon dioxide
(d)    nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Answer (D)

31.    With reference to food; chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
1.    A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
2.    Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
3.    A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

32.   Consider the following pairs:
    National Park    River flowing through the Park
1.    Corbett National Park   :     Ganga
2.    Kaziranga National Park   :     Manas
3.    Silent Valley National Park   :     Kaveri
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? '
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    3 only
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (D)

33.    Consider the following organisms:
1.    Agaricus
2.    Nostoc
3.    Spirogyra
Which of the   above   is/are   used as biofertilizer/bio fertilizers?
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    3 only
Answer (C)

34.    Which   of   the   following   adds/add nitrogen to the soil?
1.    Excretion of urea by animals
2.    Burning of coal by man
3.    Death of vegetation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

35.    In which of the following States is lion-tailed   macaque   found   in   its natural habitat?
1.        Tamil Nadu
2.         Kerala
3.    Karnataka
4.    Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    1 only
(c)    1, 3 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

36.    Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?
(a)    Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
(b)    Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
(c)    Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the "hall axial to it
(d)    There is no material difference between the two
Answer (B)

37.    Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
(a)    The extinction of the flame of desire
(b)    The complete annihilation of self
(c)    A state of bliss and rest
(d)    A   mental   stage   beyond   all comprehension
Answer (C)

38.    According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a)    Fundamental Rights
(b)    Fundamental Duties
(c)    Directive   Principles   of   State Policy
(d)    Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Answer (C)

39.    The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because:
(a)    Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
(b)    Simon Commission recom-mended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c)    there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
(d)    the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country
Answer (C)

40.    Quit India Movement was launched in response to
(a)    Cabinet Mission Plan
(b)    Cripps Proposals
(c)    Simon Commission Report
(d)    Wavell Plan
Answer (B)

41.    The    balance    of   payments    of   a country is a systematic record of
(a)    all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year
(b)    goods exported from a country during a year
(c)    economic transaction between the government of one country to another
(d)    capital movements from one country to another
Answer (C)

42.    The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of
1.    liquidity of assets
2.    branch expansion
3.    merger of banks
4.    winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 4 only
(b)    2, 3 and 4 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (D)

43.    An   increase   in   the   Bank   Rate generally indicates that the
(a)    market rate of interest is likely to fall
(b)    Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
(c)    Central Bank is following an easy money policy
(d)    Central Bank is following a tight money policy
Answer (D)

44.    In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for
(a)    economic development
(b)    redemption of public debt
(c)    adjusting the balance of payments
(d)   reducing the foreign debt
Answer (A)

45.    Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization?
1.    They possessed great palaces and temples.
2.    They   worshipped, both   male and female deities.
3.    They   employed   horse-drawn chariots in warfare.
Select the correct statement/ statements fusing the codes given below.
(a)       1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None of the statements given above is correct
Answer (A)

46.    Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?
1.    Chikungunya
2.    Hepatitis B
3.    HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)        1 and 3 only
(d)        1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

47. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
1.    The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
2.    Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
3.    Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

48.    Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
(a)   Ecotone
(b)   Ecological niche
(c)    Habitat
(d)    Home range
Answer (C)

49.    Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
(a)    NO2, O3 and     peroxyaceryl nitrate in the    presence of sunlight
(b)    CO, O2 and     peroxyacetyl nitrate    in    the    presence    of
(c)    CO,   CO2    and   N02    at   low temperature
(d)    high   concentration   of   N02, 03 and CO in the evening
Answer (A)

50.    Consider the following minerals:
1.    Calcium
2.    Iron
3.    Sodium
Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

51.    Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1.    consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2.    scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3.    examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

52.    Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
1.    Dadu Dayal
2.    Guru Nanak
3.    Tyagaraja
Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
(a)    1 and 3
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    1 and 2
Answer (B)

53.    With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?
1.    Virus
2.    Fungi
3.    Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below,
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

54.    The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where
(a)    warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
(b)    rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea
(c)    warm and cold oceanic currents meet
(d)    continental shelf is undulating
Answer (C)

55.    Which of the following is /are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?
1.    Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
2.    Coexistence of a large number of species
3.    Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

56.    Which of the following constitute Capital Account?
1.    Foreign Loans
2.    Foreign Direct Investment
3.    Private Remittances
4.    Portfolio Investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    1, 2 and 4
(c)    2, 3 and 4
(d)    1, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

57.    Consider the following historical places:
1.    Ajanta Caves
2.    Lepakshi Temple
3.    Sanchi Stupa
Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (B)

58.    With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the    following statements regarding Sankhya school:
1.    Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2.    Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any  exterior influence or agent.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)

59.    In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1.    Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2.    Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3.    Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    3 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

60.    The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?
1.    Thermal difference between land and water
2.    Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
3.    Presence of strong winds in the interior
4.    Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

61. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?
1.    High ash content
2.    Low sulphur content
3.    Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

62.    Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
1.    They are generally red in colour.
2.    They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3.    They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4.    Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    2, 3 and 4
(c)    1 and 4
(d)    2 and 3 only
Answer (C)

63.    Consider the following statements:
1.    Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
2.    Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3.    Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (B)

64.    Consider the following crops:
1.    Cotton
2.    Groundnut
3.    Rice
4.    Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
(a)    1 and 4
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    2, 3 and 4
Answer (C)

65.    "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders."
    The above statement best describes which of the following regions?
    (a)    African Savannah
    (b)    Central Asian Steppe
    (c)    North American Prairie
    (d)    Siberian Tundra
    Answer (D)

66. Consider the following statements:
    1.    Inflation benefits the debtors.
    2.    Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer (A)

67.    Disguised unemployment generally means
(a)    large number of people remain unemployed
(b)    alternative employment is not available
(c)    marginal productivity of labour is zero
(d)    productivity of workers is low
Answer (C)

68.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2.    The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3.    The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

69. Consider the following statements:
1.    National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2.    The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List m the Constitution of India.
3.    The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

70.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2.    While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (B)

71.    With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
1.    Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2.    It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)

72. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the
1.    meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
2.    lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
3.    violent upward movement of air and water particles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None of the above produces the thunder
Answer (C)

73.    Consider the following pairs:
    Tribe        State
    1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
    2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
    3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha
    4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu
    Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a)    1 and 3 only
(b)    2 and 4 only
(c)    1, 3 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

74. Consider the following liquid assets:
1.    Demand deposits with the banks
2.    Time deposits with the banks
3.    Savings deposits with the banks
4. Currency
The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is
(a)    1-4-3-2
(b)    4-3-2-1
(c)    2-3-1-4
(d)    4-1-3-2
Answer (D)

75.    In the context of Indian economy, 'Open Market Operations' refers to
(a)    borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
(b)    lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
(c)    purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI
(d)     None of the above
Answer (C)

76.    Priority Sector Lending by banks in
    India constitutes the lending to
(a)    agriculture
(b)    micro and small enterprises
(c)    weaker sections
(d)    All of the above
Answer (D)

77.    Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
(a)    Engineering
(b)    Paper and pulp
(c)    Textiles
(d)    Thermal power
Answer (B)

78.    To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?
(a)    Promoting skill development
(b)    Introducing more social security schemes
(c)    Reducing infant mortality rate
(d)    Privatization of higher education
Answer (A)

79.    In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called Tribhanga' has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?
(a)    One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
(b)    Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters
(c)    Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
(d)    A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism
Answer (A)

80.    Annie Besant was
1.    responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
2.    the founder of the Theosophical Society
3.    once the President of the Indian National Congress
Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

81.    The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
(a)    imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians
(b)    imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
(c)    removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
(d)    removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth
Answer (C)

82.    A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
1.    an increase in the money supply
2.    a decrease in the aggregate level of output
3.    an increase in the effective demand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

83.    Which one of the following groups of items is included in India's foreign-exchange reserves?
(a)    Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
(b)    Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
(c)    Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
(d)    Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank
Answer (B)

84.    Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary, in its effect?
(a)    Repayment of public debt
(b)    Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
(c)    Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deceit,
(d)    Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
Answer (D)

85.    Supply of money regaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be
(a)    a fall in the level of prices
(b)    an increase in the rate of interest
(c)    a decrease in the rate of interest
(d)    an increase in the level of income and employment
Answer (B)

86.    Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because
(a)    exposure to sunlight is prevented
(b)    concentration of carbon dioxide in the environment is increased
(c)    rate of respiration is decreased
(d)    there is an increase in humidity
Answer (C)

87.    Consider the following fauna of India:
1.    Gharial
2.    Leatherback turth
3.    Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (C)

89.    Consider the following phenomena:
1.    Size of the sun at dusk
2.    Colour of the sun at dawn
3.    Moon being visible at dawn
4.    Twinkle of stars in the sky
5.    Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    3, 4 and 5
(c)    1, 2 and 4
(d)    2, 3 and 5
Answer (C)

90.    Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?
1.    Dispersion
2.    Refraction
3.    Internal reflection
Select the correct answer codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

91. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
(a)    the new soil does not contain favorable minerals
(b)    most of the coot hairs grip the new soil too hard
(c)    most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation leaves get damaged during transplantation
(d)    leaves get damaged during transplantation
Answer (C)

92.    Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if
(a)    there is technical progress in the world economy
(b)    there is population growth in X
(c)    there is capital formation in X
(d)    the volume of trade grows in the world economy
Answer (C)

93.    Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.    Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
2.    Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
3.    Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

94.    Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1.    Hard and waxy leaves
2.    Tiny leaves or no leaves
3.    Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

95.    The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)    Gravity is the strongest of the four
(b)    Electromagnetism acts only on particles with an electric charge
(c)    Weak nuclear force causes, radioactivity
(d)    Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom
Answer (A)

96.    The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance/importance’s of discovering this particle?
1.    It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
2.    It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
3.    It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

97.    Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to
1.    resist drought and increase absorptive area
2.    tolerate extremes of pH
3.    resist disease infestation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

98.    Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1.    The Prime Minister
2.    The Chairman, Finance Commission
3.    Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4.    Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    1, 3 and 4 only
(c)    2 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

99. The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the
(a)    total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
(b)    sum of total consumption and investment expenditure
(c)    sum of personal income of all individuals
(d)    money value of final goods and services produced
Answer (A)

100.    Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households?
1.    Regional Rural Banks
2.    National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3.    Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes 'given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

Central Police forces Central Police Forces Exam Questions

1. Which of the following fish is bread exclusively in the cold regions of India?
1 Catla
2. Tinca
3. Bhekti
4. Trout
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 1 and 4
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 3 and 4
Ans. (3)

2. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?
1. The Chairman of Finance Commission
2. The Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission
3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory
Choose the answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2
(3) l and 3
(4) 1 and 3
Ans. (1)

3. Two persons start walking at a steady pace of 3km/hour from a road intersection along two roads that make an angle of 60° with ach other. What will be the (shortest) distance separating them at the end of 20 minutes?
(1)3km
(2)2km
(3) 1.5km
(4) 1 km
Ans. (4)

4. Who among the following became the Prime Minister India without being earlier the Chief Minister of a State?
1. Morarji Desai
2. Charan Singh
3. V. P. Singh
4. Chandrasekhar
5. P. V. Narasimha Rao
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1, 2 and 4
(2) 2, 3 and 5
(3) 2 only
(4) 4 only
Ans. (4)

5. In the sequence 462, 420, 380, X, 306, X stands for:
(1) 352
(2) 342
(3) 332
(4) 322
Ans. (2)

6. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through:
(1) glass
(2) vacuum
(3) water
4) air
Ans. (4)

7. Which one of the following is a membrane that protects the developing embryo from desiccation?
(1) Amnion
(2) Allantois
(3) Chorion
(4) Yolk sac
Ans. (1)

8. E.T.A is terrorist organization in:
(1) Cyprus
(2) Sri Lanka
(3) Spain
(4) South Africa
Ans. (4)

9, Which one of the following is the most important reason for the establishment of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thumba?
(1) The sea is near to the place In, the East, West and South directions
(2) It is a place near to a city in India, which is nearest to the: Geographic Equator
(3) It is situated on the Geomagnetic Equator
(4) Outer Space near Thumba exhibits queer atmospheric phenomena
Ans. (3)

10. Match List-I with List-II and the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Nuclear) List-II (States Power Station)
A. Kota 1. U. P
B. Tarapur 2. Gujarat
C. Kakrapara 3. Maharashtra
D. Narora 4. Rajasthan
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (2)

Directions: (Q. 11-20): The following 10 (Ten) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements. carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of R
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

11. Assertion (A): Upanis1adas were compiled towards the end of the Vedic periods
Reason (R): The Upanishadic thought centers, round the idea of soul (Atman), no sacrifice.
Ans. (1)

12. Assertion (A): Chandragupta instigated revolt against Greek Satraps.
Reason (R): Chandragupta had visited the camp to Alexander.
Ans. (2)

13 Assertion (A) : A lock of Einstein’s hair if scientists could locate it and extract its DNA, could help in producing another Einstein, by cloning.
Reason (R): The DNA extracted from the cell of an embryo at an early stage of development, can be transferred to individual eggs which in turn can be implanted into the uterus of a surrogate mother to give birth to an identical offspring?
Ans. (3)

14. Assertion (A): In ancient India, the states of women, Idealized in literature and art, underwent steady deterioration through the ages.
Reason (R): Though monogamy. was the ideal, polygamy was often the practice among the higher classes of society.
Ans. (2)

15. Assertion (A): The U.S.A. reemerged as India’s single largest import source in the early nineties.
Reason (R): With swift political developments in the erstwhile Soviet Union, India
gradua1ly began to rely on the U.S.A. for its defense requirements.
Ans. (3)

16. Assertion. (A): The monsoonal rainfall decreases as one goes towards the west and north-west in, the Ganga plain.
Reason (R): The moisture- bearing monsoonal winds go higher up as one moves up in the Ganga plain.
Ans. (3)

17. Assertion (A): The sign of Krishnadeva Raya ‘s the period of Vijayanagar greatest success when Its army was always victorious
Reason (R): Krishnadeva Raya’s army and navy were trained by Portuguese Generals appointed by him.
Ans. (3)

18. Assertion (A): General Dyer fired at Jallianwala Bagh crowd without any warning and till the ammunition was exhausted.
Reason (R): This shooting was not only to boost the morale of the army, but also to strike terror in Punjab.
Ans. (1)

19. Assertion (A): In India, the political parties which formed the governments represented the majority of seats secured In the elections of the House of the People at the Centre and the Legislative Assemblies in the States but not the majority of votes.
Reason (R) : The elections based on the majr1ty vote system decide the result on the basis of relative majority of votes secured.
Ans. (1)

20. Assertion (A): Nizamuddin Auliya approved the conduct of a Sufi in releasing his woman slave and allowing her to return to her Hindu parent.
Reason (R): This was strictly in. accordance with the Muslim law.
Ans. (3)

21. Which of the following statements about the Dunkel draft is/are correct?
1. It is mandatory for the Government of India to accept all its proposals in all the sectors
2. In the field of agriculture, the main proposal is to cut agricultural subsidies
3. In the field of textiles, it reiterates the operation of the multifibre agreement
4. The proposals have already been accepted by the Parliament
Select the correct answer form the codes given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) l and 2
(3) 1, 2 and 4
(4) 3 and 4
Ans. (2)

22. Consider the following statements:
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline.
2. Gujarat has he highest number of Airports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 Only
(2) only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)

23. The average elevation of Tibetan Plateau above sea level is
(1) 2 km
(2) 3 cm
(3) 4 km
(4) 5 km
Ans. (4)

24. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as ‘municipal relations’?
(1) Center’s control of the State in the legislative sphere
(2) Center’s control of the State In financial matters
(3) Center’s control of the State in the administrative sector
(4) Center’s control of the State in the Planning process
Ans. (2)

25. The main constituents of pearl are:
(1) Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate
(2) aragonite and conchiolin
(3) ammonium sulphate and sodium carbonate
(4) calcium oxide and ammonium chloride
Ans. (1)

26. The acceleration due to gravity of a castrophic earthquake will be
(1) > 550 cm/sec2
(2) > 750 cm/sec2
(3) > 950 cm/sec2
(4) > 980 cm/sec2
Ans. (3)

27. A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of the:
(1) lack of antigen in his blood
(2) lack of antibodies in his blood
(3) lack of both antigens and antibodies in his blood
(4) presence of antibodies in his blood
Ans. (2)

28. Which one of the following polymers is wide1y used for making bullet proof material?
(1) Polyvinyl chloride
(2) Polyamides
(3) Polyethylene
(4) Polycarbonates
Ans. (2)

29. Consider the following statements:
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline.
2. Gujarat has he highest number of Airports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 Only
(2) only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)

30. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Dev Samaj’?
(1) Vallabhbhai Patel
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji
(3) Sivanaryan Agnihotri
(4) Ramakrishna Paramhansa
Ans. (3)

31. The name of the periodical among the following published by Mahatma Gandhi during his stay in South Africa:
(1) Navjiwan
(2) India Gazette
(3) Afrikaner
(4) Indian Opinion
Ans. (4)

32. In which of the following did Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel play a leading role?
(1) Bijolia Movement
(2) Dandi March
(3) Textile Mill Workers Strike at Ahmedabad
(4) Bardoli Satyagraha
Ans. (4)

33. What is common among Madam Bhikaji Cama, M. Barkatulla, V.V.S. Layer and M.N. Roy?
(1) All of them were leading members of the International Communist movement
(2) M. Barkatulla was the Prime Minister and the rest were ministers in the Provisional Government of Press India established by a group of revolutionaries at Kabul
(3) All of them were among the prominent revolutionaries outside India operating in different countries during the Freedom Movement
(4) All of them were accused in the case relating to the throwing of a bomb on Lord Hardinge
Ans. (3)

34 Which one of the following important trade centers of ancient India was on the trade route connecting Kalyana with Vengi?
(1) Tagara
(2) Sripura
(3) Tripuri
(4) Tamralipti
Ans. (1)

35. Which one of the following regions of Asia is experiencing the highest annual growth rate of population?
(1) South Asia
(2) South-East Asia
(3) Central Asia
(4) West Asia
Ans. (1)

36. An air bubble in water will act like a:
(1) Convex mirror
(2) Convex lens
(3) Concave mirror
(4) Concave lens
Ans. (4)

37. The great Asian river Mekong does not run through:
(1) China
(2) Malaysia
(3) Cambodia
(4) Laos
Ans. (2)

38. The square root of the cube of this number is the cube of its square root. It is not 1 and it is less than 6.What is it?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
Ans. (3)

39. Sound waves travel at 300 m/s. Sound produced at a point is heard by a person after 5 seconds while the same sound is heard by another person after 6 seconds. What could be the maximum and minimum distances between the two persons?
(1) 1.8 km, 0.15 km
(2) 2.2 km, 0.20km
(3) 2.8 km. 0.25 km
(4) 3.3 km, 0.3 km
Ans. (4)

40. The Mansabdari System introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the system followed in:
(1) Afghanistan
(2) Turkey
(3) Mongolia
(4) Persia
Ans. (3)

41. The first to start a joint stock to trade with India were the:
(1) Portuguese
(2) Dutch
(3) French
(4) Danish
Ans. (2)

42. Which one of the following upheavals took place in Bengal immediately after the Revolt of 1857?
(1) Sanyasi Rebellion
(2) Santhal Rebellion
(3) Indigo Disturbances
(4) Pabna Disturbances
Ans. (3)

43. The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are:
(1) Buddhist
(2) Buddhist and Jain
(3) Hindu and Jam
(4) Hindu, Buddhist and Jain
Ans. (4)

44. Which one of the following usages was a post-Vedic development?
(1) Dharma-Artha-Kama -Moksha
(2) Brahmana – Kshatriya –Vaishya – Shudra
(3) Brahmacharya- Grihastashrama -Vanaprastha- Sanyasa
(4) Indra- Surya –Rudra –Marut
Ans. (2)

45. Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States?
(1) Stamp Duties
(2) Passenger and goods tax
(3) Estate Duty
(4) Taxes on Newspaper
Ans. (1)

46. l0 % of 2O + 20 % of 10 =?
(1) 10 % of 20
(2) 20 % of 10
(3) 1 % of 200
(4) 2 % of 200
Ans. (4)

47. Which of the following are correctly matched?

A
Establishment of Manufacturing
B
Year C
Place
1 Setting up of the first cotton mill
2. Manufacture of the first machine made paper
3. Setting up of the first cement factory 1854
1870
1904 Bombay
Near Calcutta Madras

Choose the correct answer from the Codes given below:
(1) 1 and 2
(2) l and 3
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1and 3
Ans. (3)

48. Which one of the following statements regarding ‘Exit Poll’ is correct?
(1) Exit Poll is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding in whose favour they had exercised their franchise
(2) ‘Exit Poll’ and Opinion Poll are one and the same
(3) Exit Poll is a device through which result of voting can be most exactly predicted
(4) ‘Exit Poll’ is an administrative device made recently by the Chief Election Commission to prevent impersonation
Ans. (3)

49. The Uniting for Peace Resolution adopted by the U.N. has:
(1) enhanced the powers of the General Assembly in a comprehensive way
(2) reduced the powers of the General Assembly made
(3) made no difference to the powers of the General Assembly.
(4) empowered the General Assembly to act in specific situations in matters of peace and security
Ans. (4)

50. Which one of the following soil types of India is restored infertile by the presence of
excess iron?
(1) Desert sand
(2) Alluvial
(3) Podzolic
(4) Lateritic
Ans. (4)

UPSC GENERAL ABILITY QUESTIONS

1. Which one of the following countries has its Military base in the Indian Ocean island Diego Garcia?

(1) France

(2) Russia

(3) United Kingdom

(4) United States of America

Ans. (4)

2. Who of the following is the author of the book Confessions of a Swadeshi Reformer: My Years as Finance Minister?

(1) P. Chidambaram

(2) Manmohan Singh

(3) Jaswant Singh

(4) Yashwant Sinha

Ans. (4)

3. Consider thee following statements:

a. BrahMos missile can fly at velocities beyond Mach 2.

b. BrahMos missile has a maximum range of l000 km

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(l) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (1)

4. For outstanding lifetime achievement in which one of the following areas is the Abel Prize, an international prize awarded?

(1) Ecology and Environment

(2) Medical Science

(3) Mathematics

(4) Biotechnology and Genetic Engineering

Ans. (3)

5. Who of the following led the opposition of the Indian Universities Act of 1904?

(1) Aurobindo Ghosh and Lala Lajpat Rai

(2) Surendra Nath Banerjee and Pherozeshah Mehta

(3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Dadabhai Naoroji

(4) W. C Banerjee and R. C. Dutt

Ans. (2)

6. With which of the following broad areas is the concept of ‘Six Sigma’ associated?

(1) Quality control in manufacturing

(2) Path tracing of satellites

(3) Pollution control of automobiles

(4) Printing technology

Ans. (1)

7. Consider the following statements:

a. Organizations of Village Panchayats is included in the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India

b. Freedom as the payments of taxes for promotion of any particular religion as included in the Directive Principles of State Policy

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (4)

8. Oliver Kahn is one the great modern sportsmen. He is in which one of the following games?

(1) Hockey

(2) Football

(3) Golf

(4) Basketball

Ans. (2)

9. Venue of 16th Asian Games, 2010 is?

(1) Kuala Lumpur

(2) Guangzhou

(3) Hanoi

(4) Ho Chi Minh City

Ans. (2)

10. Tasmania is a part of which one of the following countries?

(1) Malaysia

(2) Indonesia

(3) Australia

(4) Thailand

Ans. (3)

11. Consider the following statements:

a. A person is eligible for election as the President of India only if he/she has completed 40 years of age.

b. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college whose composition is similar to the electoral college of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b

Ans. (4)

12. Which one of the following cities of the USA is most Southwards located?

(1) Dallas

(2) San Francisco

(3) Miami

(4) Los Angeles

Ans. (3)

13. The Headquarters of which of the following is located in Paris?

(l) NATO

(2) OECD

(3) European Commission

(4) UNIDO

Ans. (2)

14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Town) (Nearest National Park/Wildlife Sanctuary)

A. Alwar 1. Ghatigaon

B. Bhopal 2. Pench

C. Gwalior 3. Sariska

D. Nagpur 4. Vanvihar

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 4 1 3

(2) 2 1 4 3

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 3 1 4 2

Ans. (3)

15. From North to South, which one of the following sequences of hills is correct?

(1) Dafla Hills-Mik Ir Hills-Jaintia Hills

(2) Dafla Hills-Jaintia Hills Mik Ir Hills

(3) Mik Ir Hills Dafla Hills- Jaintia Hills

(4) Mik Ir Hills-Jaintia Hills-Dafla Hills

Ans. (3)

16.

What does the shaded portion in the map given above represent?

(1) Coniferous forests

(2) Alpine forests

(3) High altitude vegetations.

(4) Temperate grasslands

Ans. (4)

17. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of petroleum in South America?

(1) Brazil

(2) Venezuela

(3) Colombia

(4) Argentina

Ans. (2)

18.

In the map given above four shaded areas are marked as a, b, c and d. Which of these are tea growing areas?

(1) a, b and c only

(2) a, c and d only

(3) b and d only

(4) a, b, c and d

Ans. (2)

19. With reference to Lord Cornwall’s ‘Permanent Settlement’, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) It created a limited proprietary right of Zarmindars on the land.

(2) It had taken away the Magisterial powers of Zamindars.

(3) It had left no police work for Zamindars.

(4) It recognized the rights of tenants due to which landlords could never oust them.

Ans. (4)

20. Which of the following Mughal Emperors built the Jama Masjid of Delhi?

(1) Humayun

(2) Akbar

(2) Jahangir

(4) Shahjehan

Ans. (4)

21. Nadir Shah attacked Delhi during the reign of:

(1) Ahmed Shah

(2) Farrukh Siyar

(3) Jahandar Shah.

(4) Muhammad Shah

Ans. (4)

22. Where is the National industrial Security Academy of the CISF located?

(1) Hyderabad

(2) Mount Abu

(3) Tekanpur

(4) Gwaldam

Ans. (1)

23. The Constituent Assemble was set up under the

(1) Cripps Mission

(2) Caninet Mission Plan

(3) Wavell Plan

(4) Nehru Report

Ans. (2)

24. Which vitamin is essential for coagulation of blood ?

(1) A

(2) D

(3) E

(4) K

Ans. (4)

25. CAPART is engaged primarily with which one of the following in India?

(1) e-governance

(2) Share market

(3) Rural development

(4) Pollution control

Ans. (3)

26. The elements essentially present in Sun are

(1) Oxygen and Nitrogen.

(2) Carbon and Oxygen

(3) Hydrogen and Helium

(4) Hydrogen and Oxygen

Ans. (3)

27. Which-one of the following pairs is not corect1y matched?

(1) Ghadar Movement : Sohan Singh Bhakna

(2) Kisan movement : Lala Lajpat Rai

(3) Hindustan Republican Association : .Sachindranath Sanyal

(4) Hindu Dharma Sanrakshini Sabha : Madan Mohan Malaviya

Ans. (2)

28. Consider the following statements:

1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru hoisted the National flag on 31^st December, 1929 at Lahore

2. Independence Day was observed on 26^th January, 1930 all over India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both l and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (3)

29. In humans, which one of the following causes tetanus?

(1) Bacteria

(2) Fungus

(3) Protozoan

(4) Virus

Ans. (1)

30. Consider the following statements:

1. Sundarbans delta is a very large mangrove forest.

2. Sundarbans delta lies at the mouth of the Ganges.

3. Sundarbans National Park has been recognized as a World Heritage Site

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) l and 2 only

(2) 2 and 3 only

(3) l and 3 only

(4) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (4)

31. Why does one feel muscular fatigue after strenuous physical work?

(1) Accumulation of urea in the muscles

(2) Accumulation of lactic acid in the-muscles

(3) Loss of glucose from muscles

(4) Lack of Oxygen in muscles

Ans. (2)

32. Which one of the following organs produces urea in the human body?

(1) Kidney

(2) Liver

(3) Spleen

(4) Urinary bladder

Ans. (1)

33. In most computer systems, how many binary bits are there in a byte?

(1) 8

(2) 16

(3) 32

(4) 64

Ans. (1)

34. Match List -I (Mineral) with List -II (Main Location of Reserves) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Mineral) (Main Location of Reserves)

A. Tungsten 1. Andhra Pradesh

B. Nickel 2. Kerala

C. Zircon 3. Rajasthan

D. Mica 4. Orissa

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 4 2 1

(2) 2 1 3 4

(3) 3 1 2 4

(4) 2 4 3 1

Ans. (1)

35. Match List –l (Book) with List-II (Writer) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Book) (Writer)

A. The Good Earth 1. Khushwant Singh

B. Untouchable 2. Kamala Markandaya

C. Nectar in a Sieve 3. Pearl S. Buck

D. Train to Pakistan 4. Mulk Raj Anand and

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 4 3 1

(2) 3 1 2 4

(3) 2 1 3 4

(4) 3 4 2 1

Ans. (4)

36. How is Norman Borlaug well known ?

(1) Agricultural scientist who won the Nobel Prize for Peace

(2) Made substantial contribution to research in cancer

(3) Famous humorist and poet

(4) A famous journalist

Ans. (1)

37. Match List- I (Famous Person) with List-II (Area) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Famous Person) (Area)

A. E .C. G. Sudarshan 1. Economics

B. P. K. Sethi 2. Long-distance swimming

C. Mihar Sen 3. Orthopedic surgery

D. I. G. Patel 4. Physics

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 4 2 3 1

(2) 1 3 2 4

(3) 4 3 2 1

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (3)

38. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the population density in the given States/Union Territories/NCR Delhi?

(1) Delhi > Chandigarh > Uttar Pradesh > West Bengal

(2) Chandigarh > Delhi > West Bengal> Uttar Pradesh

(3) Chandigarh > Delhi > Uttar Pradesh

(4) Delhi > Chandigarh > West Bengal > Uttar Pradesh

Ans. (4)

39. Match List-II (Factory) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Factory) List-II (Location)

A. Rail Coach Factory 1. Bangalore

B. Integral Coach Factory 2. Varanasi

C. Wheel and Axle Plant 3. Kapurthala

D. Diesel Loco Works 4. Perambur

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 4 1 2

(2) 2 1 4 3

(3) 3 1 4 2

(4) 2 4 1 3

Ans. (1)

40. Which one of the following states accounts for maximum production of gold in India? (1) Karnataka

(2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Goa

(4) Tamil Nadu

Ans. (1)

41. Which one of the following is not located in Maharashtra?

(1) Goral Beach

(2) Alibaug Beach

(3) Erangal Beach

(4) Devbagh Beach

Ans. (3)

42. Relevance ranking is a term associated with which one of the following?

(1) Search engines in Internet

(2) Critics ranking of Hollywood picture

(3) Evaluation process used in purchase of aircrafts

(4) A strategy used in warfare

Ans. (2)

43. Trinidad and Tobago got independent in 1962 from which one of the following countries?

(1) Argentina

(2) Britain

(3) Spain

(4) Portugal

Ans. (2)

44. Match List- I (Institute) with List- II (Location) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Institute) (Location)

A. Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel Management 1. Bangalore

B. Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology 2. Pune

C. Indian Institute of Astrophysics 3. Gwalior

D. Indian Institute of Astrophysics 4. Hyderabad

5. Mumbai

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 2 5 1

(2) 5 1 4 2

(3) 3 1 5 2

(4) 5 2 4 1

Ans. (3)

45. Who among the following was associated with the ‘Great Arc’- one of the biggest survey exercises in the world?

(1) William Lambton

(2) Adam Smith

(3) E. Raisz

(4) Karl Scheibler

Ans. (4)

46. In which one of the following States is the Falta Special Economic Zone located?

(1) Kerala

(2) Gujarat

(3) Orissa

(4)West Benga1

Ans. (4)

47. Consider the following statements:

1. Pattadakal Group of Monuments have been recognized as a World Heritage Site

2. .Pattadakal Group of Monuments were built by the Chola Dynasty of Southern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) l only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (1)

Direction (48-50) .The following three (3) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and-select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Code:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but, R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Ans. (4)

48. Assertion (A): In the year 1919, M.A. Jinnah and M. M. Malaviya resigned their membership of Central Legislative Council

Reason (R): In the year 1919, the Government of India passed the Rowlatt Act, which was opposed by all the Indian members of the Legislative Council

Ans. (3)

49. Assertion (A): Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from the office of the President of the Indian National Congress in the year 1989.

Reason (R): Subhash Chandra Bose left the congress to form the Indian independence League in South-East Asia.

Ans. (3)

50. Assertion (A): In the Indian system, the Executive cannot impose any tax without any legislative sanction

Reason (R): It is expressly laid down by our constitution that no tax can be imposed unless it is authorized by an Approproriation Act

Ans. (3)

UPSC CPF ASSISTANT COMMANDANT EXAM SOLVED PAPER

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Exam held in Oct 2009

1. Which one of the following statements about Nandan Nilekani is not correct?
(1) He is the co-founder of Infosys Technologies Limited
(2) He wrote a book, titled “Imagining India” in which he passionately called for governmental and cultural reforms
(3) He is Member of the Planning Commission of India
(4) He is given the rank of Cabinet Minister in July, 2009
Ans. (3)

2. Consider the following statements about former Australian cricketer Steve Waugh:
(a) He is the author of the book “True Colours: My life”
(b) He is deeply influenced by the deeds of Mother Teresa.
(c) He is working for the cause of the children afflicted by leprosy in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) b and c only
(2) a only
(3) a and c only
(4) a, b and c
Ans. (1)

3. Which one of the following is not a World Heritage Site?
(1) Kaziranga National Park
(2) Sundarbans National Park
(3) Kangchendzonga National Park
(4) Keoladeo National Park
Ans. (3)

4. Which one of the following types of forests covers the largest area in India?
(1) Tropical dry deciduous
(2) Tropical moist deciduous
(3) Tropical evergreen
(4) Himalayan moist temperate
Ans. (1)

5. In May 2008, the Supreme Court of India laid down six parameters to make the police effective, accountable and insulated from political interference and set up a monitoring committee to ensure that states implement police reforms. Which one of the following is not a directive of the apex court in this regard?
(1) Setting up of a state security commission in every state to ensure that the state government did not exercise unwarranted influence or pressure on the state police
(2) Selection of state’s director general of police would be from amongst the three senior most officers
(3) Fixing a minimum tenure of five years for police officers on operational posts unless they face disciplinary proceedings or were convicted in a criminal offence
(4) Setting up a separate investigation police force to ensure that criminal cases are prosecuted effectively
Ans. (3)

6. Contamination of mustard oil has led to several outbreaks of Epidemic Dropsy in India. Which one of the following contaminant is responsible for it?
(1) Automobile oil
(2) Linseed oil
(3) Argemone oil
(4) Rapeseed oil
Ans. (3)

7. A farmer sows beans in his fields after harvesting a crop of wheat. Which one of the following agricultural practice is he following?
(1) Multiple cropping
(2) Crop rotation
(3) Fallow field
(4) Mixed cropping
Ans. (2)

8. Aquatic animals breathe much faster than terrestrial animals because of:
(1) low amount of dissolved oxygen in water
(2) low amount of hemoglobin in their blood
(3) high metabolic rate of aquatic animals
(4) large amount of dissolved nitrogen in water
Ans. (3)

9. Which of the following is not true about Giant Panda?
(1) It is a logo of WWF (World Wide Fund for Nature)
(2) Giant Pandas are naturally found in Tibet and Southwest China
(3) Giant Pandas are worst invasive species of the world
(4) Giant Pandas feed on Bamboos
Ans. (2)

10. Which one of the following statements is not correct about “Flavr Savr” tomatoes?
(1) It is genetically engineered
(2) Its ripening process is slow
(3) The fruit cannot be left on the plant for a long period
(4) They have increased yield and better flavour
Ans. (4)

11. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Biosphere Reserves?
(1) They are protected areas meant for conservation of Biodiversity
(2) Each Biosphere reserve has three zones
(3) There is a network of Biosphere, reserves world ever
(4) They were first started by IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature and
Natural Resources)
Ans. (4)

12. Which of thee following chemicals is an artificial sweetener prescribed to diabetic persons?
(1) Aspartame
(2) Glucose
(3) Sucrose
(4) Maltose
Ans. (1)

13. Villagers in some parts of India use the water extract of the ash obtained by burning banana plant as a substitute of soda. Which one of the following is the major active component in the extract?
(1) Sodium Carbonate
(2) Potassium Carbonate
(3) Calcium Oxide
(4) Magnesium Oxide
Ans. (1)

14. Match List-I with. List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I List-II
(Process) (Contaminant)
A. Aeration followed by filtration 1. Removal of colour
B. Reverse Osmosis 2. Removal of microorganism
C. Filtration through activated carbon 3. Removal of iron

D. Treatment with UV light 4. Removal of excess salts

Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (3)

15. In some parts of India, consumption’ of underground water causes mottled teeth and bone damage. Which one of the following is responsible for this malady?
(1) Fluoride ion
(2) Chloride ion
(3) Oxide ion
(4) Carbonate ion
Ans. (1)

16. In Buddhist principle, the performance of Sila and the achievement of Samadhi and Prajna lead to Nirvana. What does this Sila stand for?
(1) Mental control
(2) Physical control
(3) Development of insight
(4) Strict penance
Ans. (1)

17. Agnimitra, the hero of Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitra belonged to:
(1) Sunga dynasty
(2) Kanva dynasty
(3) Satvahana dynasty
(4) Gupta dynasty
Ans. (1)

18. Ministry of Women and Child Development adopted the Mission statement of ‘Budgeting for Gender Equality’ in 2004-05. In this context which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
(a) It calls for incorporating a gender perspective at all levels and stages of the budgetary process.
(b) It stands for providing safe shelter to displaced women.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (3)

19. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. In this context which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Hon’ble Chief Justice of Supreme Court is the Executive Chairman of the Authority
(2) It’s objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society, on the basis of equal opportunity
(3) it issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country
(4) To organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes
Ans. (1)

20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I List-II
(Commission) (Issue)
A. Dar Commission 1. Assassination of Indira Gandhi
B. Kalelkar Commission 2.Ragging in educational institutions
C. Thakkar Commission 3. Demand for Linguistic States
4. Backward Classes
Codes:
A B C
(1) 3 4 1
(2) 3 2 4
(3) 1 2 4
(4) 1 4 2
Ans. (1)

21. Which of the following provisions is/are not directly covered in the definition of Domestic violence under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
(1) Physical harm causing physical injury or pain to women
(2) Mental injury such as emotional abuse, insult, harassment, repeated threats, demand for dowry, sexual abuse etc.
(3) Non-sharing of house-hold work, non-caring attitude for children, unhealthy habits of living, late coming etc. (of the male partner)
(4) Deprivation of economic or financial resources
Ans. (3)

22. Which. of the following movement address both sociological and ecological issues?
(a) The Trade Union movements in postcolonial India
(b) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(c) Jai Prakash Narain’s movement for total revolution
(d) Chilka Bachao Andolan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) a and c only
(2) b and d only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) a, b, c and d
Ans. (2)

23. Which of the following is not a correct description of the ‘zero hour’?
(1) The time allotted after the Question Hour
(2) Question on issues of national importance or serious grievances of the people can be raised by members of either House
(3) Questions to he asked during zero hour are circulated one day in advance only
(4) The justification for its origin lies in allowing for democratic discussion beyond rules and procedures
Ans. (3)

24. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Rajaya Sabha can make recommendations on a money bill
(2) Rajya Sabha can amend a money bill
(3) Rajya Sabha can delay the passing of a money bill up to a maximum of 14 days
(4) Rajaya Sabha cannot reject a money bill
Ans. (2)

25. Which of the following statements are correct?
The attorney general of India
(a) must have the qualifications as that required by a judge of the supreme court
(b) enjoys the same privileges and immunities as the members of Parliament.
(c) has the right of audience in all courts of India.
(d) his salaries and expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b only
(3) c and d
(4) b and d
Ans. (1)

26. Who among the following Print Ministers of India never had to seek trust vote (vote of confidence) from the Lok Sabha?
(1) Indira Gandhi
(2) P. V. Narasimha Rao
(3) H. D. Devegowda
(4) Manmohan Singh
Ans. (1)

27. The Parliament is entitled to enact a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with:
(1) defense
(2) foreign affairs
(3) security of India
(4) All the above
Ans. (4)

28. Who among the following Prime Ministers of India has not presented the budget?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Morarji Desai
(3) Indira Gandhi
(4) Rajeev Gandhi
Ans. (2)

29. Consider the following statements:
(a) When the inflation decreases, but still remains positive. it is deflation.
(b) Deflation reduces the real value of money over time.
(c) Historically not all episodes of deflation correspond with periods of poor economic
growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and c only
(3) c only
(4) b only
Ans. (3)

30. Which one of the following are advance grants made by the House of People in respect of the estimated expenditure for a part of the ensuing financial year, pending the regular passage of the budget?
(1) Supplementary grants
(2) Special grants
(3) Vote on credit
(4) Vote on account
Ans. (4)

31. Consider the following Statements with respect to Pulitzer Prizes:
(a) The Pulitzer Prize Gold Medal is awarded each year to the American newspaper that wins the Public Service category.
(b) The Pulitzer Prize Gold Medal is never awarded to an individual.
(c) Jhumpa Lahiri won the Pulitzer Prize in the year 2000 for her first book: a short
story collection called The Interpreter of Malacities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a, b and c
(2) a only
(3) b and c only
(4) a and c only
Ans. (1)

32. Which one of the following is correct with respect to Pawan Hans?
(1) It is a fighter aircraft operational with the Indian Air Force
(2) It is India’s one of the leading helicopter service provider
(3) It is a wind energy plant, located in Himachal Pradesh
(4) It is a mountain peak situated at the Kargil region
Ans. (2)

33. Consider the following statements about Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG):
(a) The NSG guidelines are implemented by each participating government in accordance with its national laws.
(b) The NSG guidelines facilitate the development of nuclear trade.
(c) South Africa is the only country from Africa in the NSG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b and c only
(3) a, b and c
(4) a and b only
Ans. (2)

34. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the historic Stilwell road’?
(a) It connects India and Myanmar through Arunachal Pradesh.,
(b) It was built by the Japanese during the World War II.
(c) The road lies in the lands of ‘three different countries China, Myanmar and India.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(1) a and b
(2) b only
(3) a and c
(4) b and c
Ans. (3)

35. Consider the following paragraph:
With origins shrouded in mystery, the dancers of this classical form of dance of India communicate inner emotions and themes through candences of body flexions, movements and kinetic suggestions. Three styles of this form of dance exist, originating from the three different regions of Seraikela (Jharkhand), Purulia (West Bengal), and Mayurbhanj (Orissa). Martial movements, strong rhythmic statements and dynamic use of space are characteristic of this dance form. The dance is an excellent culmination of enormous vitality and virility. As It is difficult to dance for long with a mask, the dance does not last more than 7-10 minutes.
The above paragraph may be attributed to which one of the following dance form?
(1) Jatra
(2) Chhau
(3) Garba
(4) Cheraw
Ans. (2)

36. Which one of the following is not a function of Reserve Bank of India?
(1) Banker to the government
(2) Keeping foreign exchange reserve
(3) Issuing of one rupee coin and note
(4) Regulating credit in the country
Ans. (3)

37. Consider the following paragraph about a famous autobiographical narrative:
It was first published in 19 when the author was, elected the first African-American President of the Harvard Law Review. The law jurna1. It tells the story of the life of the author up to his entry in the Harvard Law Review. The author’s parents separated when he was two years old. In that book he formed an image of his absent father from the stories told by his mother and her parents.
Who is the author of the memoir?
(1) Nelson Mandela
(2) Martin Luther King
(3) Benjamin Banneker
(4) Barak Hussain Obama
Ans. (4)

38. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of holding of the Grand Slam tennis tournaments every year?
(1) US Open—French Open— Australian Open—Wimbledon
(2) Australian Open—French Open—Wimbledon—US Open
(3) French Open—Australian Open—US Open—Wimbledon
(4) Wimbledon—French Open— US Open—Australian Open
Ans. (2)

39. Which one of the following statements about Dr. Manmohan Singh is not correct?’
(1) Dr. Manmohan Singh is the first Indian Prime Minister to return to power after
completing a full five-year term,
(2) He was the Union Minister of Finance during the tenure of then-Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao.
(3) He was the Governor of Reserve Bank of India and thereafter the Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission,
(4) From 1998 to 2004, he was the Leader of the Opposition in the Rajaya Sabha.
Ans. (1)

40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I List-II
(Chairperson) (Working Group on)
A. Prof. D. L. Seth 1. Empowerment of Scheduled Castes
B. Prof. S. K. Thorat 2. Empowerment of Minorities
C. Shri. S. Sankaran 3. Empowerment of the other backward classes
4. Empowerment of Scheduled Tribes
Codes:
A B C
(1) 4 3 2
(2) 1 4 3
(3) 3 1 4
(4) 3 2 4
Ans. (3)

41. Consider the following statements about Employees’ State Insurance (ESI) Act, 1948:
(a) The Act is applicable to non seasonal factories using power and employing 20 or more persons.
(b) The ESI Scheme has already been implemented in different areas in all the State/Union Territories of India.
(c) ESI Scheme being contributory in nature, all the employees in th factories or establishments to which the Act applies shall be insured.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(1) a and b only
(2) a and c only
(3) b and c only
(4) a, b and c
Ans. (3)

42. From the paragraph given below identify the temple referred to:
Situated on the serene surrounding on the bank of river Mahanadi, this temple is one of the wonders of the medieval period and draws at1ention of several devotees, tourists and researchers from all around the world. The temple does not stand upright and is tilted towards one side. Another attraction of the temple of Kudo fish for which special offerings are made.
(1) Muktesvara temple
(2) Huma temple
(3) Cuttack chandi temple
(4) Lingaraj temple
Ans. (2)

43. Consider the following statements with respect to recent developments in infrastructure sector in India:
(a) India Infrastructure Finance Company Limited was Set up as a banking company for providing long-term loans for financing infrastructure projects.
(b) 100 per cent Foreign Direct Investment under automatic route is permitted for all infrastructure projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (3)

44. Which of the following statements about ‘Ujjawala’, a comprehensive scheme for the prevention of trafficking, rescue, and rehabilitation of women and child victims is not correct?
(1) It consists of certain mechanisms for the reintegration nd repatriation of victims including cross border victims
(2) This scheme is being implemented by various non governmental organizations to provide direct aid and benefit to victims of trafficking
(3) The scheme has four components viz, Prevention, Rescue, Rehabilitation, and Repatriation
(4) The scheme is designed to liberate victims of commercial sexual exploitation
Ans. (3)

45. Consider the following paragraph On Indian painting:
Women are mainly engaged in the creation of these paintings. These painting’s do not depict mythological characters or images of deities, but depict social life. Images of human being’s and animals along with scenes from daily life are created in a loose rhythmic pattern. Painted white on mud walls, they are pretty close to prehistoric cave paintings in execution and usually depict scenes of human figures engaged in activities like hunting, dancing. sowing and harvesting, Stylistically, they can be recognized by the fact that they .are painted on an austere mud base using one color, white, with occasional dots In red and yellow. This colour is obtained from grounding rice into white powder. The paragraph given above characterizes which one of the following folk and art
form of India?
(1) Tanjore art
(2) Madhubani painting
(3) Warli folk painting
(4) Pattachitra painting
Ans. (2)

Directions: Each of the next five items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes: -
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

46. Assertion (A): Import of Chinese toys was banned by the Government of India.
Reason (R): The plastic material used to make the toys are not biodegradable.
Ans. (1)

47. Assertion (A): .A person suffering from myopia uses a concave lens.
Reason (R): A concave lens diverges a beam of light incident on it.
Ans. (1)

48. Assertion (A): The “Green Belt” represents a planning concept for controlling the physical expansion of large cities.
Reason(R): “Green Belt’ is an integral component of a city.
Ans. (1)

49. Assertion (A): In areas of intensive subsistence agriculture, animal husbandry plays an insignificant role.
Reason (R): Throughout the region, the farmers are handicapped in raising cattle due to lack of scientific methods of breeding.
Ans. (3)

50. Assertion (A): Nitrogen gas is used to provide inert atmosphere in chemical reaction. Reason (R): Nitrogen gas has a very little chemical reactivity at ordinary temperature.
Ans. (1)